Members bluewater Posted April 6, 2023 Members Posted April 6, 2023 Are there English or other language translations of the New Testament Greek that both predate the KJV and are recognized as inspired translations? Quote
Members TheGloryLand Posted April 8, 2023 Members Posted April 8, 2023 On 4/6/2023 at 2:04 PM, bluewater said: Are there English or other language translations of the New Testament Greek that both predate the KJV and are recognized as inspired translations? How do they the 3 compare with the KJ Bible. Are they very similar? If yes, then I would say they are inspired translations. I believe the king James version is the best and free version out there in the English language. The King James Bible, beats the test of time, KJB is not the only true Bible, There are many languages out there, if after they are translating with the King James Bible, they are very similar. Then I believe, they are inspired, and you are reading the Word of God. How do I know, what I am saying is true? the world either loves the KJB, or hates it. This is a good sign. Quote
Moderators OLD fashioned preacher Posted April 8, 2023 Moderators Posted April 8, 2023 Curious as to the intent of the question. For example: if La Biblia de Valera 1602 is inspired and inerrant (not a statement but a hypothetical), what difference does that make if you don't speak Spanish? Also, what difference does it make if you can't get one? (You probably can't get one outside of a museum. Then, you have to ask, "Is the 1865 R-V equivalent to the V 1605, etc.) If there is an inspired English Bible from 1400 (not saying there is one) but you can't find a whole one - what good is that. Not saying the question has or doesn't have validity - just trying to ascertain the intent of the question. Jim_Alaska and Pastor Matt 2 Quote
Members TheGloryLand Posted April 8, 2023 Members Posted April 8, 2023 38 minutes ago, OLD fashioned preacher said: Curious as to the intent of the question. For example: if La Biblia de Valera 1602 is inspired and inerrant (not a statement but a hypothetical), what difference does that make if you don't speak Spanish? Also, what difference does it make if you can't get one? (You probably can't get one outside of a museum. Then, you have to ask, "Is the 1865 R-V equivalent to the V 1605, etc.) If there is an inspired English Bible from 1400 (not saying there is one) but you can't find a whole one - what good is that. Not saying the question has or doesn't have validity - just trying to ascertain the intent of the question. I think he’s trying to put the king James only folks, in the spot. Quote
Moderators Salyan Posted April 13, 2023 Moderators Posted April 13, 2023 On 4/8/2023 at 12:02 PM, TheGloryLand said: I think he’s trying to put the king James only folks, in the spot. "on the spot"  Jim_Alaska 1 Quote
Members TheGloryLand Posted April 13, 2023 Members Posted April 13, 2023 4 hours ago, Salyan said: "on the spot" Â In the spot light, not on the spot light. Quote
Moderators Salyan Posted April 13, 2023 Moderators Posted April 13, 2023 You’re mixing your metaphors, TGL. Quote
Moderators OLD fashioned preacher Posted April 14, 2023 Moderators Posted April 14, 2023 15 hours ago, Salyan said: You’re mixing your metaphors, TGL. Metaphors mix, sounds like a catchy menu item. BrotherTony 1 Quote
Members bluewater Posted April 22, 2023 Author Members Posted April 22, 2023 I'm mainly wondering how English speaking people came to know the Gospel before the KJV Bible was published, because faith comes from hearing the word of God. I'm quit sure there were many saved English speaking people before the KJV, so they must have heard the word of God somewhere, the inspired word of God which He used to lead people to Jesus and salvation. And if the inspired word of God in the English language existed before the KJV Bible was published, then the KJV is not the only inspired English translation. Â Quote
Members MikeWatson1 Posted April 22, 2023 Members Posted April 22, 2023 30 minutes ago, bluewater said: I'm mainly wondering how English speaking people came to know the Gospel before the KJV Bible was published, because faith comes from hearing the word of God. I'm quit sure there were many saved English speaking people before the KJV, so they must have heard the word of God somewhere, the inspired word of God which He used to lead people to Jesus and salvation. And if the inspired word of God in the English language existed before the KJV Bible was published, then the KJV is not the only inspired English translation.  Yes. There are bibles before the KJV that better translated 'ecclessia' into assembly or congregation, instead of the word 'church' which has taken on several meanings. King James wanted the Puritans views of church kept out of the KJV. That allowed for the Anglican/Episcopalians view of the church to be kept and maintained. Thankfully by studying context in the KJV, this issue is ironed out, but there are earlier bibles that didn't make the change to begin with.  I need to find the quotes I read about this. Quote
Administrators HappyChristian Posted April 26, 2023 Administrators Posted April 26, 2023 Actually, King James wanted the baptistic view of government kept out...in the Geneva (which is actually the closest to KJV), notes were included that pointed out that kings were not divine. Puritans were Anglican. Their view of the church was the same as his, except that they felt there were some remnants of Catholicism in the Anglican church. That was what they wanted removed from church practice. They remained faithful to the central doctrines of the Anglican church. I agree that one can study the KJV and, in context, find out what is meant. This is one area where we can see that the KJ translation (though guided by God) is not inspired, but is preserved. There is a major difference. bluewater, when you look into the history of Bible translations, you will find that the source text is at issue. Corrupt texts were used to translate modern versions. That is wherein the problem lies. BrotherTony 1 Quote
Members bluewater Posted April 30, 2023 Author Members Posted April 30, 2023 On 4/26/2023 at 2:28 PM, HappyChristian said: Â Corrupt texts were used to translate modern versions. That is wherein the problem lies. When reading and translating from the Greek I have always found that Vaticanus and the Alexandrian texts fall short. I think that Wescott-Hort should be rejected altogether. HappyChristian 1 Quote
Administrators HappyChristian Posted April 30, 2023 Administrators Posted April 30, 2023 52 minutes ago, bluewater said: When reading and translating from the Greek I have always found that Vaticanus and the Alexandrian texts fall short. I think that Wescott-Hort should be rejected altogether. Agreed. Textus Receptus for the win. Quote
Members bluewater Posted May 1, 2023 Author Members Posted May 1, 2023 On 4/29/2023 at 9:51 PM, HappyChristian said: Agreed. Textus Receptus for the win. Which Texts Receptus, as there are many? Quote
Members SureWord Posted May 1, 2023 Members Posted May 1, 2023 On 4/22/2023 at 1:36 PM, bluewater said: I'm mainly wondering how English speaking people came to know the Gospel before the KJV Bible was published, because faith comes from hearing the word of God. I'm quit sure there were many saved English speaking people before the KJV, so they must have heard the word of God somewhere, the inspired word of God which He used to lead people to Jesus and salvation. And if the inspired word of God in the English language existed before the KJV Bible was published, then the KJV is not the only inspired English translation. Â The KJV is the pure word of God but you can be saved from any version of the bible. You just might not grow as much fruit. Quote
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