Why did God used a evil king to make a great Bible, King James

[MikeWatson1]

On 8/17/2022 at 7:18 AM, Jerry said:

The word church perfectly relays the meaning of ekklesia (obviously the contexts of the passages need to be taken in consideration), so it does not matter if they used "church" instead of "assembly" or "congregation."

Yes, the context keeps the church as visible and local.. as an assembly or congregation.  That's why the KJV is a very accurate translation. But the KJV was still influenced by Anglican.. Church of England/Episcopalian folks.

 

 

[1Timothy115]

Actually, God used a lot of "evil king/s" to make His preserved word. Do a search in your favorite KJV app for "king" then specifically look for "he did evil". God uses these circumstances to teach His people what not to do and in many cases to correct His people when they stray. Such as, Nebuchadnezzar and Herod.

[Jerry]

Actually, God did not use evil kings in Bible times to preserve His Word - your examples show He used evil kings to discipline or rule over His people. What OT history and church history does show is that God used His people (OT priests and NT believers) to preserve His Word.

Besides that, what proof do you (whoever is making the claim) that the KJV was authorized by a wicked king? Based on King James' own writings, he was for holiness, against witchcraft and immorality. Either way, God used him to make a way for the Bible to be translated by true believers during his reign - he was not involved in the translating of the Bible.

[1Timothy115]

17 hours ago, Jerry said:

Actually, God did not use evil kings in Bible times to preserve His Word - your examples show He used evil kings to discipline or rule over His people. What OT history and church history does show is that God used His people (OT priests and NT believers) to preserve His Word.

Besides that, what proof do you (whoever is making the claim) that the KJV was authorized by a wicked king? Based on King James' own writings, he was for holiness, against witchcraft and immorality. Either way, God used him to make a way for the Bible to be translated by true believers during his reign - he was not involved in the translating of the Bible.

Didn't say "preserve His Word".

I said, "Actually, God used a lot of "evil king/s" to make His preserved word. 

On 5/20/2022 at 10:14 AM, TheGloryLand said:

God used this evil king, King James,  to make a great Bible, along with great men. scholars of the days, and those men that fear God, they also feared the king.

Don’t mess up, or off with your head.

 

"to make a great Bible"

[Jerry]

Sorry if I misunderstood you - but I am not sure in what fashion God used any evil kings in the making of His Word. Perhaps you could clarify what you mean or are referring to from history.

[TheGloryLand]

I mentioned to make a great Bible. To be used by God, a evil Man, sinner, in the gathering of the English language, the Complete Word of God. 

[BrotherTony]

45 minutes ago, TheGloryLand said:

I mentioned to make a great Bible. To be used by God, a evil Man, sinner, in the gathering of the English language, the Complete Word of God. 

Are you referring to King James I? 

[Jerry]

We are all sinners - some of us saved by grace - but what makes King James evil? There is a big difference between being a sinner saved by grace and evil.

[1Timothy115]

On 9/4/2022 at 9:21 PM, 1Timothy115 said:

Do a search in your favorite KJV app for "king" then specifically look for "he did evil".

 

[Russ Pittman]

He used a donkey once.

I think He can use whoever He wants to accomplish His will.

[Jerry]

True, God did use a donkey once - and He may even override the decisions and actions of evil men to get His sovereign will done; however, His Word shows that He uses and works through His children that are holy, set apart from evil, dedicated to Him.

That being said, what historical proof does anyone here have that King James was "evil"?

[Rebecca]

I'm unsure if King James was evil, and I'm not really willing to dig through all things historical to find out as I dislike politics in general and have no desire to read about it. However, just from casual glances through history books, it's clear that he was a mediocre king at best, and was who I would consider a bad person, but "bad" and "evil" are two different things. 

King James didn't write the KJV Bible, he simply authorized it, gave permission for it to be translated. He did write a few other books, including  "Daemonologie" in 1597. You can order it on Amazon or a Barnes and Noble if you want to read it. 

https://www.barnesandnoble.com/w/daemonologie-king-james-vi-i/1129474843

Overview of the book:
In 1590 three hundred Scottish 'witches' were tried for plotting the murder of their King, James VI of Scotland (soon to be James I of England). James is known to have suffered from a morbid fear of violent death, and the trial heightened his anxiety over this apparently treasonous 'un-Christian' sect, and stimulated him to study the whole subject of witchcraft. 'Daemonologie' is the result of this royal research, detailing his opinions on the topic in the form of a Socratic dialogue between the sceptic Philomathes and witch-averse Epistemon, who reveals many aspects of witch-craft. The book consists of three sections, on magic, on sorcery and witchcraft, and on spirits and ghosts, and ends with a lurid account of the North Berwick witch trials, based on the evidence of Dr John Fian, the alleged head of the coven, whose 'confession' was obtained with the aid of thumbscrews, the Boot, and by the ripping out of his fingernails.

Edited October 18, 2022 by Rebecca
added the overview

[heartstrings]

King David committed adultery, then murdered the woman's husband. I'd say that was pretty evil. Yet he was the writer of most of the Psalms. King Solomon was basically a "legal" adulterer by having 1000 wives and concubines and accommodating them in their idolatry. Looks like a pretty sordid life to me, yet Solomon was the writer of the Proverbs, Ecclesiastes, and Song of Solomon. I guess that's what some say to be "using crooked sticks to draw straight lines".

[Jerry]

God says this:

2 Peter 1:21 For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost.

So instead of arguing with God's Word, submit your viewpoint to what it says and try to figure out what God's Word is saying/teaching. All men sin, but obviously God did not use sinners (ie. unbelievers), nor believers who were walking in sin UNTIL they repented of their sin. We find David writing a Psalm (#51) AFTER he repented of his sin with Bathsheba, but not during the time he was walking in sin.

As much as we think it is wrong to have multiple wives, the OT does not teach that. (What it does teach is how to treat the other wives and their children.) We cannot judge OT men of God by NT standards. Solomon obviously wrote the Song of Solomon and his Proverbs while he was walking closely with the Lord, and Ecclesiastes after he repented of his idolatry with the gods that his many wives followed.

[heartstrings]

8 minutes ago, Jerry said:

God says this:

2 Peter 1:21 For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost.

So instead of arguing with God's Word, submit your viewpoint to what it says and try to figure out what God's Word is saying/teaching. All men sin, but obviously God did not use sinners (ie. unbelievers), nor believers who were walking in sin UNTIL they repented of their sin. We find David writing a Psalm (#51) AFTER he repented of his sin with Bathsheba, but not during the time he was walking in sin.

As much as we think it is wrong to have multiple wives, the OT does not teach that. (What it does teach is how to treat the other wives and their children.) We cannot judge OT men of God by NT standards. Solomon obviously wrote the Song of Solomon and his Proverbs while he was walking closely with the Lord, and Ecclesiastes after he repented of his idolatry with the gods that his many wives followed.

 

^{Deuteronomy 17:15} Thou shalt in any wise set him king over thee, whom the Lord thy God shall choose: one from among thy brethren shalt thou set king over thee: thou mayest not set a stranger over thee, which is not thy brother.

¹⁶ But he shall not multiply horses to himself, nor cause the people to return to Egypt, to the end that he should multiply horses: forasmuch as the Lord hath said unto you, Ye shall henceforth return no more that way.

¹⁷ Neither shall he multiply wives to himself, that his heart turn not away: neither shall he greatly multiply to himself silver and gold.

Yes, I'm sure we could all agree that David, Solomon were right with the Lord at the time they contributed to the Word of God. But nowhere, even in the OT, does God condone multiple wives. Even Abraham was out of the will of God when he took Hagar. And Solomon was disobedient to the command of God when he took multiple wives. Adam had one wife too.

 

^{Genesis2: 23} And Adam said, This is now bone of my bones, and flesh of my flesh: she shall be called Woman, because she was taken out of Man.

²⁴ Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh.

God's will has always been one man for one woman. He never condoned what Abraham, Jacob, Solomon did, nor any other instance of polygamy.