What must I do to be saved?

[coc333]

In Acts 2, Peter preached the first gospel sermon after Christ ascended back to heaven. He told the Jews that they had crucified Christ who is the son of God. In verse 37 they asked men and brethren, what shall we do? We understand that they were asking what they had to do to be saved. This is the most important question that one can ask or answer.

If someone were to ask you that same question today, how would you answer it?

[MilkmanDan]

A recognize your sinful state see Romans 3.10, 3.23
Realize your sins earn you death see Romans 6.23
A physical death and
B spiritual death or eternal separation from God in Hell and later in the lake of fire see the 2nd death in Revelations 20.14, 21.8
once you understand both see what Christ has done for you see Romans 5.8 and Romans 6.23(
Pray (ask) God to forgive you of your sinful state and express to God that as best as you know how that you will trust God and accept His Son as your Saviour

No doubt about it. I love going soul winning. I know better know at 33 than I did in April 17th 1988 when I 1st professed faith in Christ.

Boy i am dating myself :P

[coc333]

Thank you for your response. So, we must recognize that we need salvation? That is certainly what the Jews did. They clearly saw the need to be saved. Had they not, they certainly would not have asked the question. It is equally clear that they believed that Jesus is who He said that He is (ie the Son of God). But, why do you say that the alien sinner is to pray to ask forgiveness. That was not the response that Peter gave to them.

In verse 38 of Acts 2 Peter responded, "...Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost." Why did Peter say that they were required to both "repent," and "be baptized?"

Would not the conversion of Saul (Paul) also cause a problem with the view that the alien sinner must "pray" for forgivness? In Acts 9:9-11 it seems apparent that Saul had been praying for 3 days. Yet when Ananias went to him as God had commanded him to do, Ananias' response was not that all was ok. Why? Was his prayer not enough? Ananias's response was, "And now why tarriest thou? arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the Lord."

Why was this? Why did he tell Saul this? Why did he tell him to be baptized?

In Christ,

Robert

[Bro Ed]

The repentance that Peter spoke of, is the "prayer for Forgiveness" that we speak of. To repent you must first confess to God (1 John 1:9 for starters) your sins. The confession to and forgiveness of God takes the power of sin away, allowing a person to repent or turn away from their sin. The baptism is simply the outward profession of the inward conversion. What your question seems to ask, without actually saying so is; Does someone have to be baptized to be saved? The answer is simply no. Otherwise the promise of Christ given to the thief on the cross would not have held water. He definitely did not get baptized after he repented.

[coc333]

The repentance that Peter spoke of' date=' is the "prayer for Forgiveness" that we speak of. To repent you must first confess to God (1 John 1:9 for starters) your sins. The confession to and forgiveness of God takes the power of sin away, allowing a person to repent or turn away from their sin. The baptism is simply the outward profession of the inward conversion. What your question seems to ask, without actually saying so is; Does someone have to be baptized to be saved? The answer is simply no. Otherwise the promise of Christ given to the thief on the cross would not have held water. He definitely did not get baptized after he repented.[/quote']

How do you derive the view that "repentance" in this passage is speaking of "prayer for forgiveness?" 1 John 1:9 is speaking of those who have already obeyed the gospel. That passage is telling the Chrisitan how he/she can be forgiven. Acts 2:38 on the other hand is speaking to those who have yet to obey the gospel.

I have no question that we must indeed be baptized in order to be saved. The bible clearly teaches this. If not, then why not? If we do not have to be baptized then explain Acts 2:38. If we do not have to be baptized then explain Acts 9:9 and 22:16. If we do not have to be baptized then eplain Romans 6:3-6 and while we are at it, please, explain to me Galations 3:27? All of these passages teach that we must be baptized in order to be saved.

Now as to the thief on the cross:

1. Are you certain that he was never baptized? Matt 3:1-6 teaches that, "Then went out to him Jerusalem, and all Judaea, and all the region round about Jordan." How do we know that he was not among these?

2. We must remember that he was not under the same dispensation that we are. The thief was under the Mosaic dispensation. He would not have been required to be baptized.

3. We must remember that Jesus had power to forgive sins on earth. See Luke 5:24; Mark 2:10; and Matt 9:6. Jesus had the power to forgive this man's sins. Now He is bound by His NT. Now He requires that we seek forgiveness as His word sets forth for us to.

Now, let's just clear up a couple of things. First, baptism is not the only part of God's plan of salvation. We must understand that God has a part and we have a part.

God's part: Grace (Eph 2:8-10; Rom 3:26-31) but remember we do have a part or else everyone in the world is saved (Titus 2:11)

Our Part

1. The word is key (we must hear the word): Romans 10:17; Romans 1:16
2. We must have faith (John 3:16; Heb 11:6), but not a simple faith alone (James 2:14-26)
3. We must repent (Acts 3:19; Acts 2:38; Luke 13:3
4. We must confess (Matt 10:32-33; Acts 8:37)
5. We must be baptized (immersed) for the remission of our sins (Acts 2:38; Mark 16:16; Acts 22:16; Gal 3:27; Rom 6:3-6)

Now let's clear something else up. Doing these things is not trying to work our way into heaven. It is not earning our way into heaven. We can do nothing that will merit our salvation but we must obey (Luke 17:10)

Also, let's clear up something else. Water regineration is not what the Bible teaches and is not what I am saying. The water is simply the means by which we contact the blood of Christ which is that which washes us clean.

If these things are not true, then why are they not true? The Bible is pretty clear.

In Christ,

Robert

[kevinmiller]

A better understanding of that verse(in Acts 2) is required due to the fact that there a far more verses that are far more abundantly clear that baptism is not necessary for salvation. You can try to explain away the thief on the cross but it is just a made-up theory used to prop up an assumed belief that is clearly lacking in sufficient evidence. The Bible makes it clear that "whoever believes" and "whoever calls" WILL be saved. The Bible doesn't say "whoever believes and is baptized will be saved." It says that you believe and are saved. I am of the opinion that a prayer is not even necessary for salvation as much as an inward casting of yourself upon Christ's mercy for forgiveness and repentance of sins. A verbal prayer is a manifestation of the heart, which is why so many people pray the prayer and nothing happens. It's not the prayer that saves you.

Consider this verse:
For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach the gospel: not with wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of none effect. 1 Corinthians 1:17

Clearly, the gospel is more important than baptism or else they would go hand in hand and Paul would be required to baptize them because, if baptism was necessary for salvation, the gospel would be incomplete without it.

edit to add:

As an example, when one says ?Take two aspirin for your headache,? it is obvious to everybody that it does not mean ?take two aspirin in order to get your headache,? but instead to ?take two aspirin because you already have a headache.? There are three possible meanings of the word ?for? that might fit the context of Acts 2:38: 1--?in order to be, become, get, have, keep, etc.,? 2??because of, as the result of,? or 3??with regard to.? Since any one of the three meanings could fit the context of this passage, additional study is required in order to determine which one is correct. We need to start by looking back to the original language and the meaning of the Greek word eis. This is a common Greek word (it is used 1774 times in the New Testament) that is translated many different ways. Like the English word ?for? it can have several different meanings. So, again, we see at least two or three possible meanings of the passage, one that would seem to support that baptism is required for salvation and others that would not. While both the meanings of the Greek word eis are seen in different passages of Scripture, such noted Greek scholars as A.T. Robertson and J.R. Mantey have maintained that the Greek preposition eis in Acts 2:38 should be translated ?because of? or ?in view of,? and not ?in order to,? or ?for the purpose of.?

Why, then, do some come to the conclusion that we must be baptized in order to be saved? Often, the discussion of whether or not this passage teaches baptism is required for salvation centers around the Greek word eis that is translated ?for? in this passage. Those who hold to the belief that baptism is required for salvation are quick to point to this verse and the fact that it says ?be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins,? assuming that the word translated ?for? in this verse means ?in order to get.? However, in both Greek and English, there are many possible usages of the word ?for.?

You can read the whole article here: http://www.gotquestions.org/baptism-Acts-2-38.html

[coc333]

A better understanding of that verse(in Acts 2) is required due to the fact that there a far more verses that are far more abundantly clear that baptism is not necessary for salvation. You can try to explain away the thief on the cross but it is just a made-up theory used to prop up an assumed belief that is clearly lacking in sufficient evidence. The Bible makes it clear that "whoever believes" and "whoever calls" WILL be saved. The Bible doesn't say "whoever believes and is baptized will be saved." It says that you believe and are saved. I am of the opinion that a prayer is not even necessary for salvation as much as an inward casting of yourself upon Christ's mercy for forgiveness and repentance of sins. A verbal prayer is a manifestation of the heart, which is why so many people pray the prayer and nothing happens. It's not the prayer that saves you.

Consider this verse:
For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach the gospel: not with wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of none effect. 1 Corinthians 1:17

Clearly, the gospel is more important than baptism or else they would go hand in hand and Paul would be required to baptize them because, if baptism was necessary for salvation, the gospel would be incomplete without it.

edit to add:

As an example, when one says ?Take two aspirin for your headache,? it is obvious to everybody that it does not mean ?take two aspirin in order to get your headache,? but instead to ?take two aspirin because you already have a headache.? There are three possible meanings of the word ?for? that might fit the context of Acts 2:38: 1--?in order to be, become, get, have, keep, etc.,? 2??because of, as the result of,? or 3??with regard to.? Since any one of the three meanings could fit the context of this passage, additional study is required in order to determine which one is correct. We need to start by looking back to the original language and the meaning of the Greek word eis. This is a common Greek word (it is used 1774 times in the New Testament) that is translated many different ways. Like the English word ?for? it can have several different meanings. So, again, we see at least two or three possible meanings of the passage, one that would seem to support that baptism is required for salvation and others that would not. While both the meanings of the Greek word eis are seen in different passages of Scripture, such noted Greek scholars as A.T. Robertson and J.R. Mantey have maintained that the Greek preposition eis in Acts 2:38 should be translated ?because of? or ?in view of,? and not ?in order to,? or ?for the purpose of.?

Why, then, do some come to the conclusion that we must be baptized in order to be saved? Often, the discussion of whether or not this passage teaches baptism is required for salvation centers around the Greek word eis that is translated ?for? in this passage. Those who hold to the belief that baptism is required for salvation are quick to point to this verse and the fact that it says ?be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins,? assuming that the word translated ?for? in this verse means ?in order to get.? However, in both Greek and English, there are many possible usages of the word ?for.?

You can read the whole article here: http://www.gotquestions.org/baptism-Acts-2-38.html

Mr. Miller,

Thank you for your reply to my post. Where shall we begin?

Let's begin with Acts 2:38. You brought up the Greek word "eis." I expected that someone would. No respectable Greek Lexicon translates it as "because of." Looking at Bible translations, we find that even such poor translations as the NIV translates this as "for" and not "because of." Why is that? Second, if "eis" means "because of," then we have to say that one must repent "because of," the forgiveness of sins since "eis" appplies to both repent and be baptized.

But, even if you could dismiss this verse with such an argument (you can't but even if you could) there are so many other verses that teach the necessity of baptism. Again, as I have already said:

1. If one is not required to be baptized, then please explain Acts 9:9 and Acts 22:16?
2. If one is not required to be baptized, then please explain Romans 6:3-6?
3. If one is not required to be baptized, then please explain Galations 3:27?

Now, if you feel that my points on the "thief on the cross" is a "made up theory to prop up an assumed belief that is clearly lacking in sufficient evidence." Please explain how any of the points are incorrect? Was the thief on the cross under the Christians dispensation? Of course he was not. Christ had yet to die. Did Christ not have power to forgive sins on earth? If not then please explain Luke 5:24? Do you believe that He still has that power? Can He forgive sins outside of what the instructions we find in the NT? If so, the please explain Romans 1:16? Can you prove that this man was not baptized? If so, then do so?

Now, you said that the Bible does not say "whoever believes and is baptized will be saved." Well, reading the KJV, I must conclude that you are right. What Mark 16:16 actually says is, "He that believeth and is baptized SHALL be saved...." But are we going to argue over the word "will" verses the word "shall?" I suggest that we don't. I am sure that other translations use the word "will." Now, I am sure that you will point out that the second part of that verse says, "...but he that believeth not shall be damned," and that you will point out that it does not say that "he that is not baptized shall be damned." That is certainly true. But, if I say to you that anyone who opens the door and walks in will be in the house but anyone who does not open the door will not be in the house, you will clearly see the point.

You say that there are many verses that teach that no one must be baptized. If so, name just one. I find none that does so. You mentioned that Paul said that he was not sent to be baptized. That is true, but read the context of 1 Cor 1:17, he never said that he did not baptize. An interesting side note is that when the Gospel was preached and people believed, then they obeyed by submitting to the Lord in baptism.

We can not get around that baptism is certainly required. If not, then why not?

In Christ,

Robert

[trc123]

Mr. Miller,

Thank you for your reply to my post. Where shall we begin?

Let's begin with Acts 2:38. You brought up the Greek word "eis." I expected that someone would. No respectable Greek Lexicon translates it as "because of." Looking at Bible translations, we find that even such poor translations as the NIV translates this as "for" and not "because of." Why is that? Second, if "eis" means "because of," then we have to say that one must repent "because of," the forgiveness of sins since "eis" appplies to both repent and be baptized.

But, even if you could dismiss this verse with such an argument (you can't but even if you could) there are so many other verses that teach the necessity of baptism. Again, as I have already said:

1. If one is not required to be baptized, then please explain Acts 9:9 and Acts 22:16?
2. If one is not required to be baptized, then please explain Romans 6:3-6?
3. If one is not required to be baptized, then please explain Galations 3:27?

Now, if you feel that my points on the "thief on the cross" is a "made up theory to prop up an assumed belief that is clearly lacking in sufficient evidence." Please explain how any of the points are incorrect? Was the thief on the cross under the Christians dispensation? Of course he was not. Christ had yet to die. Did Christ not have power to forgive sins on earth? If not then please explain Luke 5:24? Do you believe that He still has that power? Can He forgive sins outside of what the instructions we find in the NT? If so, the please explain Romans 1:16? Can you prove that this man was not baptized? If so, then do so?

Now, you said that the Bible does not say "whoever believes and is baptized will be saved." Well, reading the KJV, I must conclude that you are right. What Mark 16:16 actually says is, "He that believeth and is baptized SHALL be saved...." But are we going to argue over the word "will" verses the word "shall?" I suggest that we don't. I am sure that other translations use the word "will." Now, I am sure that you will point out that the second part of that verse says, "...but he that believeth not shall be damned," and that you will point out that it does not say that "he that is not baptized shall be damned." That is certainly true. But, if I say to you that anyone who opens the door and walks in will be in the house but anyone who does not open the door will not be in the house, you will clearly see the point.

You say that there are many verses that teach that no one must be baptized. If so, name just one. I find none that does so. You mentioned that Paul said that he was not sent to be baptized. That is true, but read the context of 1 Cor 1:17, he never said that he did not baptize. An interesting side note is that when the Gospel was preached and people believed, then they obeyed by submitting to the Lord in baptism.

We can not get around that baptism is certainly required. If not, then why not?

In Christ,

Robert

Robert,

A few questions:

Must one believe in the combination of believing on Christ and the baptism for that salvation, or is it sufficient to believe on Christ and be baptized, whether you believe in the efficacy of baptism or not?

The one who believed on Christ for salvation and then baptized, but not believing in the efficacy of the baptism, must they now be baptized believing it is an essential part of salvation?

Does the person need to have someone else baptize them for this to be effective in saving them, or can they simply baptize themself out in the river?

Does this part of being saved include others needing to see them being baptized to be saved, or is it sufficient just to do it?

The person who believes on Christ from a Bible they've picked up and read from, is it sufficient to intend to be baptized in order for this to count with God (as far as salvation) or do they actually need to have been baptized? What happens to the one who's believed and attempting to be baptized by searching out other believers, but perishes first.....what is their end?

What precisely is counted unto the believer as their righteousness?

How does adding baptism as a requirement for salvation affect God's glory?

Thank you.

[kevinmiller]

You never answered this:
For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach the gospel: not with wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of none effect. 1 Corinthians 1:17

Clearly, the gospel is more important than baptism or else they would go hand in hand and Paul would be required to baptize them because, if baptism was necessary for salvation, the gospel would be incomplete without it.

Also, for Mark 16:16:
"He who believes and is baptized will be saved; but he who does not believe will be condemned? (Mark 16:16). If we look at this verse closely, we see that it is composed of two basic statements. 1?He who believes and is baptized will be saved. 2?He who does not believe will be condemned.

Clearly, the determining factor regarding whether one is saved or condemned is whether or not he believes. In interpreting this passage correctly, it is important to realize that while it tells us something about believers who have been baptized (they are saved), it does not say anything about believers who have not been baptized. In order for this verse to teach that baptism is necessary for salvation, a third statement would have had to be included, that statement being: ?He who believes and is not baptized will be condemned? or ?He who is not baptized will be condemned.? But, of course, neither of these statements is found in the verse."
http://www.gotquestions.org/baptism-Mark-16-16.html

Just a question, did you come here just to debate Baptism being necessary for salvation or is it possible for you to be open to any of our arguments? Cause I'm not going to continue posting in this thread if you have no intention of having an open mind about it.

[coc333]

Robert,

A few questions:

Must one believe in the combination of believing on Christ and the baptism for that salvation, or is it sufficient to believe on Christ and be baptized, whether you believe in the efficacy of baptism or not?

The one who believed on Christ for salvation and then baptized, but not believing in the efficacy of the baptism, must they now be baptized believing it is an essential part of salvation?

Does the person need to have someone else baptize them for this to be effective in saving them, or can they simply baptize themself out in the river?

Does this part of being saved include others needing to see them being baptized to be saved, or is it sufficient just to do it?

The person who believes on Christ from a Bible they've picked up and read from, is it sufficient to intend to be baptized in order for this to count with God (as far as salvation) or do they actually need to have been baptized? What happens to the one who's believed and attempting to be baptized by searching out other believers, but perishes first.....what is their end?

What precisely is counted unto the believer as their righteousness?

How does adding baptism as a requirement for salvation affect God's glory?

Thank you.

[coc333]

You never answered this:
For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach the gospel: not with wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of none effect. 1 Corinthians 1:17

Clearly, the gospel is more important than baptism or else they would go hand in hand and Paul would be required to baptize them because, if baptism was necessary for salvation, the gospel would be incomplete without it.

Also, for Mark 16:16:
"He who believes and is baptized will be saved; but he who does not believe will be condemned? (Mark 16:16). If we look at this verse closely, we see that it is composed of two basic statements. 1?He who believes and is baptized will be saved. 2?He who does not believe will be condemned.

Clearly, the determining factor regarding whether one is saved or condemned is whether or not he believes. In interpreting this passage correctly, it is important to realize that while it tells us something about believers who have been baptized (they are saved), it does not say anything about believers who have not been baptized. In order for this verse to teach that baptism is necessary for salvation, a third statement would have had to be included, that statement being: ?He who believes and is not baptized will be condemned? or ?He who is not baptized will be condemned.? But, of course, neither of these statements is found in the verse."
http://www.gotquestions.org/baptism-Mark-16-16.html

Just a question, did you come here just to debate Baptism being necessary for salvation or is it possible for you to be open to any of our arguments? Cause I'm not going to continue posting in this thread if you have no intention of having an open mind about it.

Mr. Miller,

Excuse me but I believe I did answer your question. Yes, Paul did say that he was not sent to baptize. We also see that he did not say that he never baptized. As a matter of fact in 1 Cor 1:14 he clearly stated that that he had baptized some of the Corinthians. Now, why did he do so? And while we are at it (back to some of the verses that you continue to ignore), why did Ananias in Acts 22:16 tell Saul (Paul) to arise and to be baptized and wash away his sins calling on the name of the Lord? According to Acts 9:9-11 Saul spent 3 days praying and yet again, Ananias told him to get up and to get baptized. Again, if it is not necessary then why did he tell Saul to do so?

While you are considering those verse, please explain these others as well. Rom 6:3-6; Gal 3:27; 1 Peter 3:21?

I have heard your argument on Mark 16:16 before and it defies logic. Firse of all, it clearly states what you said that the Bible does not say. You said that the bible does not say "he who believes and is baptized will be saved," and yet that is exactly what Mark 16:16 says. Now that this has been pointed out to you, you say well the second half does not say that he who is not baptized will not be saved. I have already explained this as well. But please, allow me to do try to do so again. Jesus said that he who 1. believes and 2. is baptized 3. shall be saved. He then said he who does not 1 believe will not 2. be saved. If I do not 1. believe then it will not matter in the least bit if I do not 2. get baptized because I will not 3. be saved. Faith is necessary, but so is baptism. Mark 16:16 says "he that believeth and is baptized shall be saved..." You can not get around that no matter how much you would like nor how much you try. It says it sir and those are not my words but the words of Christ.

Why is it that when Phillip preached Jesus, the ethiopian eunich respondes by saying, here is water what doth hender me from being baptized? (Acts 8:35-36)

Mr. Miller, I am open to the teachings of the bible. If you can present to me a even one passage that teaches that I, a man living in the Christian dispensation, am not required to be baptized then I will agree with you. I have provided you will multiple passages that clearly teach that I must be baptized and yet you refuse to admit it. Are you not open to hearing the truth?

I am not here to pick a fight or argue. I am here because I love my Lord, I love everyone soul and I would like to discuss the Bible. If that is an offense to you, then that is something you will have to address with God. I am commanded to take the Gospel to all the world. (Mark 16:15-16; Matt 28:19-20). As Paul wrote in 1 Corinthians 9:16, woe is unto me if I preach not the Gospel.

Mr. Miller, I hope that I have answered your questions and done so with a kind an loving heart. Sharing the truth in a loving manner is my desire.

In Christ,

Robert Jones

[coc333]

Sorry, but I clicked submit twice. I have attempted to delete this post but could not so I will simply put this note on.

In Christ,

Robert

[kevinmiller]

I'm confused. You're here because you think the rest of us are unsaved?
Out of curiosity, what would you tell a person that has no access to a lake or baptismal who had just received Christ? No matter what they do or believe or who they trust, they're still going to Hell? That doesn't jive with Scripture. The Bible says faith alone and I believe it.

How do you explain this away?
"For by grace are ye saved through faith."
Ephesians 2:8

[coc333]

I'm confused. You're here because you think the rest of us are unsaved?
Out of curiosity, what would you tell a person that has no access to a lake or baptismal who had just received Christ? No matter what they do or believe or who they trust, they're still going to Hell? That doesn't jive with Scripture. The Bible says faith alone and I believe it.

How do you explain this away?
"For by grace are ye saved through faith."
Ephesians 2:8

Mr. Miller,

I do not know you nor do I, that I am aware of, know anyone else on this site. I can not say whether you or anyone else on this site has obeyed the gospel. What I can say is that the Bible teaches that anyone who does not obey the Gospel will in fact be lost. (Matt 7:21ff)

Sir, you continue to ask me questions and I have attempted to answer each and everyone. I have asked you several question that you refuse to even acknowledge. Why is that? Why do you refuse to answer questions that are simple. You claim that the Bible does not teach that one must be baptized in order to be saved. I have provide multiple passages that clearly refutes what you are saying. You are ignoring them. Why?

I do not attempt to explain away Eph 2:8-10. I believe that passage to be completely true. We are saved by grace through faith. As Romans 6:26-31 teaches, it is not anything that we do that merits our salvation. Non of us can do anything that will EARN us salvation, but does that me we are not required to do certain things? Luke 17:10 clearly shows us that doing what has been commanded is not earning us anything, but is simply obeying the will of God.

You believe in Faith only? Then why did you quote Eph. 2:8? That passage clearly teaches that there is more to it than faith. That passage includes grace. Are we not saved by grace? If so, it can not be faith only. What about the "sinner's prayer?" Must one say that? If so, it is not by faith only. Must one repent as is taught in Luke 13:3 as well as Acts 3:19 and other passages? If so, then it is not by faith only. And what about the blood of Christ? Where does it come in? If it has a part, then it can not be by faith alone. Can you provide even 1 passage that states that we are saved by faith alone? I can provide a passage that clearly states that we are NOT saved by faith alone. James 2:24 says that we are not justified (saved) by faith only. How do you explain that, Mr. Miller.

Sir, I say let's not worry about my opinions nor your opinions but simply look at what the Bible does say.

1. What does it say about hearing the word? (Rom 10:17; Matt 17:5; John 1:1-2)
2. What does the Bible say about believing/faith? (Heb 11:6; John 3:16)
a. By the way, if work plays no part in salvation then where does faith come in because Eph 2:10 states that faith is a work.
3. What does the Bible say about repenting? (Acts 2:38; 3:19; Luke 13:3)
4. What does the Bible say about confessing? (Matt 10:32-33; Acts 8:37)
5. What does the Bible say about baptism? (Acts 2:38; Mark 16:16; Acts 22:16; Rom. 6:3-6; Gal 3:27)

Mr. Miller, if you want to ask me questions and have me answer your questions, please show me the respect of answering my questions. You are so convinced that what I am saying is not true, the please, open the Bible and provide evidence refuting the passages that I have provided? IF you can't, then please stop standing on sand? Please, stop teaching that which you can not provide proof of?

Again, Mr. Miller, I hope that all who read this understands that I am not trying to sound ugly. I am not trying to be rude. I am simply standing up for what the Bible actually says. I say all that I say in love.

In Christ,

Robert

[kevinmiller]

[quote]Sir, you continue to ask me questions and I have attempted to answer each and everyone. I have asked you several question that you refuse to even acknowledge. Why is that? Why do you refuse to answer questions that are simple. You claim that the Bible does not teach that one must be baptized in order to be saved. I have provide multiple passages that clearly refutes what you are saying. You are ignoring them. Why?[/quote]
I haven't answered the questions in your previous post because I don't trust your intentions, to be frank. You posted some verses that are all saying very similar things but you refuse to look at them in any other possible light. You are quite convinced of what you believe. Normally, I wouldn't have a problem with that. But again, I don't trust your intentions, so I do. You're acting as if you've earned a place on this forum, as if you have a right to have your questions answered, which you have failed to do.

[quote]I do not attempt to explain away Eph 2:8-10. I believe that passage to be completely true. We are saved by grace through faith. As Romans 6:26-31 teaches, it is not anything that we do that merits our salvation. Non of us can do anything that will EARN us salvation, but does that me we are not required to do certain things? Luke 17:10 clearly shows us that doing what has been commanded is not earning us anything, but is simply obeying the will of God.

You believe in Faith only? Then why did you quote Eph. 2:8? That passage clearly teaches that there is more to it than faith. That passage includes grace. Are we not saved by grace? If so, it can not be faith only. What about the "sinner's prayer?" Must one say that? If so, it is not by faith only. Must one repent as is taught in Luke 13:3 as well as Acts 3:19 and other passages? If so, then it is not by faith only. And what about the blood of Christ? Where does it come in? If it has a part, then it can not be by faith alone. Can you provide even 1 passage that states that we are saved by faith alone? I can provide a passage that clearly states that we are NOT saved by faith alone. James 2:24 says that we are not justified (saved) by faith only. How do you explain that, Mr. Miller.[/quote]

No, we are not to do anything outward to be saved, that is works salvation and most clearly taught against in Scripture. What must be done takes place in the heart and that is what prevents it from becomes of works that men might boast.

There isn't anything more than faith. Grace is what God has given, what is already offered to us and to every man who would believe. The faith aspect of that verse is the only that we do ourselves but it isn't an action, it's a state of the heart and mind. A conscience commitment and faith in God and repentance of sins. And no, you don't have to say the sinner's prayer. So it's still by faith then, isn't it? :wink The prayer is a manifestation of your heart, not the thing that saves you. The blood has nothing to do with you an me. It's what Christ has done. What on earth does it have to do with works?? Works refers to what you can do for salvation, which is nothing, that is abundantly clear. It is the works of Christ that bestows salvation to them that believe. Not to them that believe and are baptized, but it is the power of God unto salvation to them that BELIEVE.