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I'm not entirely sure how accurate the above quote is Katy-Anne. There are more than two types of KJV-Onlyists. Allow me to demonstrate.

1. Those who are TR-Only and believe the KJV is the best translation.

2. Those who are KJVO, and believe the KJV is inspired via preservation. In other words, because God preserved His word, the KJV is inspired because it is a 100% faithful and accurate translation of the preserved words of God.

3. Those who hold to advanced revelation and double-inspiration.

4. Those who hold to point 3, and believe the KJV is literally Jesus Christ.(Very few of this kind, but they are out there)



I'd be in a group between numbers 2 and 3. :lol

I believe the KJV is inspired, and that the hand of God guided the King James translators to accurately translate the Bible into English. I don't believe there's more in the KJV than there is in the original originals (not talking about just the TR, like the very first manuscripts directly penned by Paul and other writers).
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I had to come to the conclusion that the King James Bible was pure, perfect and inspired because it is the KJB. I believe that God waited till 1611 to re-inspire the Bible because the English language was at the height of its purity then. God chose English because it is the most spoken language in the modern world. The Bible used to be in Greek and Hebrew because those were spoken the most. Don
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You're right, if we had the original manuscripts, it'd match up exactly with our KJB. I don't believe there's anything extra in the KJB that wasn't there before. Anything "new" is just something that was always there, but no one noticed it before.

Wow... just wow.
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in Jeremiah 36 there was this wicked king that burned part of the Bible that God had already gotten Jeremiah to write. He did that because he was a Bible hater.

Then took Jeremiah another roll, and gave it to Baruch the scribe, the son of Neriah; who wrote therein from the mouth of Jeremiah all the words of the book which Jehoiakim king of Judah had burned in the fire and there were added besides unto them many like words. Jeremiah 36:32.

So, not only did God inspire scripture for the second time, but it seems that He added to His previous words.


Jer 36:27-32
(27) Then the word of the LORD came to Jeremiah, after that the king had burned the roll, and the words which Baruch wrote at the mouth of Jeremiah, saying,
(28) Take thee again another roll, and write in it all the former words that were in the first roll, which Jehoiakim the king of Judah hath burned.
(29) And thou shalt say to Jehoiakim king of Judah, Thus saith the LORD; Thou hast burned this roll, saying, Why hast thou written therein, saying, The king of Babylon shall certainly come and destroy this land, and shall cause to cease from thence man and beast?
(30) Therefore thus saith the LORD of Jehoiakim king of Judah; He shall have none to sit upon the throne of David: and his dead body shall be cast out in the day to the heat, and in the night to the frost.
(31) And I will punish him and his seed and his servants for their iniquity; and I will bring upon them, and upon the inhabitants of Jerusalem, and upon the men of Judah, all the evil that I have pronounced against them; but they hearkened not.
(32) Then took Jeremiah another roll, and gave it to Baruch the scribe, the son of Neriah; who wrote therein from the mouth of Jeremiah all the words of the book which Jehoiakim king of Judah had burned in the fire: and there were added besides unto them many like words.

What we see here, is that the king destroyed the previous scroll that had been read to him. After he did so, God spoke to Jeremiah saying "write it all again. And add this portion right here: Thus saith the LORD; Thou hast burned this roll, saying, Why hast thou written therein, saying, The king of Babylon shall certainly come and destroy this land, and shall cause to cease from thence man and beast?
(30) Therefore thus saith the LORD of Jehoiakim king of Judah; He shall have none to sit upon the throne of David: and his dead body shall be cast out in the day to the heat, and in the night to the frost.
(31) And I will punish him and his seed and his servants for their iniquity; and I will bring upon them, and upon the inhabitants of Jerusalem, and upon the men of Judah, all the evil that I have pronounced against them; but they hearkened not.
And when it says that Baruch and Jeremiah "added words," not that it says "like words." Another way of saying this would be "many similiar words." This was not new revelation, other than the above section in italics. These are merely similiar words to what was written the first time, that were not either adding or subtracting to the word of God(except perhaps in number). It was all the same stuff, the same prophecies, perhaps just a bit more in detail because of the addition of these "like words." The only new thing inspired here is the section in italics above.
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The reason there was more added was because Jehoiakim had burned the roll....therefore the LORD was addressing this. To use this as a reason to believe in advanced revelation of the Bible doesn't make any sense. The Bible was completed...COMPLETE (1 Corinthians 13:10). Therefore there can be no advanced revelation at all. The roll spoken of in Jeremiah was the LORD speaking to this man Jehoiakim...it was not a completed Bible. The Lord did not say "this is now complete and no one is to ever add to it."....the LORD spoke again to Jehoiakim using the roll. I don't see how some one can use this to prove advanced revelation of a COMPLETED Bible, which God Himself says is complete.

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Correct me if I'm wrong, and I'm not meaning to sound stupid or argumentative, but if advanced revelation were correct, wouldn't the KJB no longer actually be a translation, but an original work? Based on the TR?


If one logically follows Advanced Revelation to it's ultimate outcome, then yes. Many who hold to this position believe that Bibles in other languages have to be translated out of the KJV in order to be an accurate translation. Some even believe that you should teach people who speak another language to speak English so they can learn from the KJV.
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Correct me if I'm wrong, and I'm not meaning to sound stupid or argumentative, but if advanced revelation were correct, wouldn't the KJB no longer actually be a translation, but an original work? Based on the TR?

Absolutely....that is at the root of the whole "advanced revelation" thing. People that hold to this might not realize that that is what they are saying. Basically that God used the KJB translators to write a new Bible (or atleast used the old text and added new things to it...). And we all know that God only wrote ONE book.
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If one logically follows Advanced Revelation to it's ultimate outcome, then yes. Many who hold to this position believe that Bibles in other languages have to be translated out of the KJV in order to be an accurate translation. Some even believe that you should teach people who speak another language to speak English so they can learn from the KJV.


Would it be wrong to use the KJB to translate? Or should we always go back to the TR?
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Revelation 22:18 For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book:
19 And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book.



When was this verse written?

When was the KJV translated?


BTW a study into the lives of some of the translators would probably show an even greater heresy as some of them were not even saved, as far as I've heard....since when did God ever inspire a lost man to write Scripture? Translation is an educational job...inspiration is something God completed after Revelation.

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Revelation 22:18 For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book:
19 And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book.



When was this verse written?

When was the KJV translated?


BTW a study into the lives of some of the translators would probably show an even greater heresy as some of them were not even saved, as far as I've heard....since when did God ever inspire a lost man to write Scripture? Translation is an educational job...inspiration is something God completed after Revelation.

:thumb
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