To death, or until death do us part… ?

[TheGloryLand]

Is this famous quote taken from the Bible?

For centuries, marriage in the English-speaking world has been regarded as a contract that ended only when one partner was no longer alive. The phrase “until death do us part” was first popularized in the English-speaking world following the first printing of the Book of Common Prayer in England in 1549.

If it’s not taken from the Bible, why do preachers and pastors all say it?

I know that the Bible tells us, we are to love each other, like Christ loved the church.

[HappyChristian]

Jesus said "let not man put asunder..."  Saving for the exception clause, divorce is not something God wants...so if God doesn't want divorce, it should then follow that marriage is until death. Right?

[TheGloryLand]

1 hour ago, HappyChristian said:

Jesus said "let not man put asunder..."  Saving for the exception clause, divorce is not something God wants...so if God doesn't want divorce, it should then follow that marriage is until death. Right?

Yes, it should be to death. But in those early days, men had more than one wife. I believe this could be why they ask Jesus, which wife a man will have in heaven. The topic of this post can apply to why it's not in the Bible.

[HappyChristian]

1 hour ago, TheGloryLand said:

Yes, it should be to death. But in those early days, men had more than one wife. I believe this could be why they ask Jesus, which wife a man will have in heaven. The topic of this post can apply to why it's not in the Bible.

SOME men had multiple wives, not all...and, no, that's not why they asked Jesus that. They were specifically referring to the part of the law where a brother is to marry his brother's widow (to raise up seed to the brother)...and if there were a bunch of brothers, all of whom ended up marrying her because they were all dying (hardy bunch lol), whose wife would she be. Jesus said nobody's because there's no marriage in Heaven.

[BrotherTony]

6 hours ago, HappyChristian said:

SOME men had multiple wives, not all...and, no, that's not why they asked Jesus that. They were specifically referring to the part of the law where a brother is to marry his brother's widow (to raise up seed to the brother)...and if there were a bunch of brothers, all of whom ended up marrying her because they were all dying (hardy bunch lol), whose wife would she be. Jesus said nobody's because there's no marriage in Heaven.

Besides, the group asking Jesus (Sadducees) didn't believe in the resurrection. They were testing him. 

[SureWord]

Divorce was actually simple among the poor in Victorian England because nobody cared. It was the upper class of society where it was near impossible. I've read stories of men literally divorcing their wives at a pub on the spot and marrying her off to another man for a pitcher of beer. She would be more than willing too.

On 9/8/2023 at 9:52 PM, HappyChristian said:

SOME men had multiple wives, not all...and, no, that's not why they asked Jesus that. They were specifically referring to the part of the law where a brother is to marry his brother's widow (to raise up seed to the brother)...and if there were a bunch of brothers, all of whom ended up marrying her because they were all dying (hardy bunch lol), whose wife would she be. Jesus said nobody's because there's no marriage in Heaven.

By the time of Jesus polygamy was outlawed by the Romans. The Greeks despised it too.

I believe the Sadducees were asking Jesus a loaded question that could either make him look like he opposed Moses or on the flip side opposed Roman law.

Edited September 10, 2023 by SureWord

[SureWord]

On 9/8/2023 at 8:27 PM, TheGloryLand said:

Yes, it should be to death. But in those early days, men had more than one wife. I believe this could be why they ask Jesus, which wife a man will have in heaven. The topic of this post can apply to why it's not in the Bible.

Not in heaven but after the resurrection. 

[heartstrings]

 Matthew 19:8 He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so.

So, if "from the beginning" men were intended to never "put away your wife", that kind of sounds like "until death do you part" right? Of course it does. God intended one man for one woman, from the beginning, and He intended it for life.

Edited September 12, 2023 by heartstrings

[TheGloryLand]

21 minutes ago, heartstrings said:

 Matthew 19:8 He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so.

So, if "from the beginning" men were intended to never "put away your wife", that kind of sounds like "until death do you part" right? Of course it does. God intended one man for one woman, from the beginning, and He intended it for life.

Then the disciple said,

19:10   His disciples say unto him, If the case of the man be so with his wife, it is not good to marry. 
19:11   But he said unto them, All men cannot receive this saying, save they to whom it is given.

[heartstrings]

13 minutes ago, TheGloryLand said:

Then the disciple said,

19:10   His disciples say unto him, If the case of the man be so with his wife, it is not good to marry. 
19:11   But he said unto them, All men cannot receive this saying, save they to whom it is given.

You left out verse 9, but I believe the passage relates to this....

1 Corinthians 7: 25Now concerning virgins I have no commandment of the Lord: yet I give my judgment, as one that hath obtained mercy of the Lord to be faithful. 26I suppose therefore that this is good for the present distress, I say, that it is good for a man so to be. 27Art thou bound unto a wife? seek not to be loosed. Art thou loosed from a wife? seek not a wife. 28But and if thou marry, thou hast not sinned; and if a virgin marry, she hath not sinned. Nevertheless such shall have trouble in the flesh: but I spare you.

 

Both passages indicate that it is good NOT to marry. Why? So that one can better focus on serving God and because, as 1st Corinthians 7:28 says, those that marry "shall have trouble in the flesh". But if you DO marry, you're not sinning, even though NOT to marry is good. This is because some people get along just fine unmarried while other people can't. BUT, if you are already married, you are commanded to stay married to that person at all costs unless they commit fornication which I believe includes any kind of fornication like molesting children, committing homosexualty etc.) Matthew 19:9

[TheGloryLand]

How will verse 28 be viewed ? Thanks
 

End of verse 28, mentioned above

Nevertheless such shall have trouble in the flesh: but I spare you.

[heartstrings]

The way I understand it, it refers to the fact that married folks run into troubles, get on each other's nerves from time to time, and have occasional conflicts( or more than occasional).  I once heard an old visiting preacher say "me and my wife have never had a cross word"  and I thought to myself along the lines of......"yeah, and you'll lie about other things too".