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Are The Jews Still The Chosen Ones Today And Why?


The Glory Land

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And I will bless them that bless thee, and curse him that curseth thee: and in thee shall all families of the earth be blessed. Genesis 12:3   For Jacob my servant's sake, and Israel mine elect, I have even called thee by thy name: I have surnamed thee, though thou hast not known me. Isaiah 45:4

 

Are they "chosen ones"? Yes. Because the 'nation' of Israel is God's "elect". Meaning that all Mankind was to be blessed in the nation of Israel and that the Nation of Israel has a special purpose. Even today Israel  is a living testimony of the providence, mercy, grace, longsuffering, and faithfulness of God for all mankind to see.. Individual Jews, however, are bound by the same requirement as any; and that being to believe on the Lord Jesus Christ. Many do. but the majority don't. Just like the Jews in the wilderness who died because of unbelief, and could not enter the promised land, the same holds true today. Salvation has always been by grace through faith on an individual basis; to Jew and Gentile alike. But yes, again. the nation is still God's "chosen" or "elect". God is not finished with them.

 

Hebrews 3:16For some, when they had heard, did provoke: howbeit not all that came out of Egypt by Moses. 17But with whom was he grieved forty years? was it not with them that had sinned, whose carcases fell in the wilderness? 18And to whom sware he that they should not enter into his rest, but to them that believed not? 

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I suppose this will depend on one's views of history. I believe that, while they have been set aside due to unbelief, yet they have not been rejected forever. I believe that when Christ returns, he will reign literally from Jerusalem, and that a remnant will be saved at the end with His coming.

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Romans 11:25 For I would not, brethren, that ye should be ignorant of this mystery, lest ye should be wise in your own conceits; that blindness in part is happened to Israel, until the fulness of the Gentiles be come in.
Romans 11:26 And so all Israel shall be saved: as it is written, There shall come out of Sion the Deliverer, and shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob:
Romans 11:27 For this is my covenant unto them, when I shall take away their sins.
Romans 11:28 As concerning the gospel, they are enemies for your sakes: but as touching the election, they are beloved for the fathers' sakes.
Romans 11:29 For the gifts and calling of God are without repentance.

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Romans 11:25 For I would not, brethren, that ye should be ignorant of this mystery, lest ye should be wise in your own conceits; that blindness in part is happened to Israel, until the fulness of the Gentiles be come in.
Romans 11:26 And so all Israel shall be saved: as it is written, There shall come out of Sion the Deliverer, and shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob:
Romans 11:27 For this is my covenant unto them, when I shall take away their sins.
Romans 11:28 As concerning the gospel, they are enemies for your sakes: but as touching the election, they are beloved for the fathers' sakes.
Romans 11:29 For the gifts and calling of God are without repentance.

Romans 11:29 was one of the places I was going, you beat me to it :)

 

If they weren't still "chosen", then there would be no remnant (Rom 9:27), there would be no real Jew testing fake Jews (Rev 2:2,9; 3:9).

Being left behind in the rapture has nothing to do with the election of Israel. Being "chosen" begs the question-chosen for what? God not did have just one "choice" plan. Christ Himself is referred to as being elect (Isa 42:1, 1 Peter 2:6) so did Christ need to be elect to be saved? (which would hinge on a fallacy that He needed saved at all.)

Paul shows clearly that there is a difference between Jew, Gentile and the Church:

"Give none offense, neither to the Jews, nor to the Gentiles, nor to the church of God" 1 Cor 10:32.

 

Israel has yet to fulfill the birthright promise to Ephraim in Genesis 48-49. The church inherited the spiritual blessings of faith through Abraham, but the church has nothing to do with the physical promises that are yet to be fulfilled in Israel. The spiritual blessings were fulfilled in the genealogy of Abraham through Judah to Christ (Genesis 49:10,Romans 9:1-7, Galations 3:16), but the birthright was not reckoned after the genealogy (1 Chronicles 5:1-2).

 

This fact alone-without even touching on all of the other fallacies of the following-throws a monkey wrench in all amil, post mil, preterist/covenant/historicist/Calvinist theology.

 

The plan that God has for the church is entirely different and separate from what God has told the nation of Israel.

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If, indeed, the Jews had been rejected 100%, never to be re-established, never to ne a remnant, then to whose throne would Jesus have claim, as the Son of David, who will sit upon David's throne? His line was purposely draewn through the kingly line of Judah for a reason, which has yet to be fully fulfilled. If no literal Israel, then the very throne is rejected and of no purpose.

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Romans 11:29 was one of the places I was going, you beat me to it :)

 

If they weren't still "chosen", then there would be no remnant (Rom 9:27), there would be no real Jew testing fake Jews (Rev 2:2,9; 3:9).

Being left behind in the rapture has nothing to do with the election of Israel. Being "chosen" begs the question-chosen for what? God not did have just one "choice" plan. Christ Himself is referred to as being elect (Isa 42:1, 1 Peter 2:6) so did Christ need to be elect to be saved? (which would hinge on a fallacy that He needed saved at all.)

Paul shows clearly that there is a difference between Jew, Gentile and the Church:

"Give none offense, neither to the Jews, nor to the Gentiles, nor to the church of God" 1 Cor 10:32.

 

Israel has yet to fulfill the birthright promise to Ephraim in Genesis 48-49. The church inherited the spiritual blessings of faith through Abraham, but the church has nothing to do with the physical promises that are yet to be fulfilled in Israel. The spiritual blessings were fulfilled in the genealogy of Abraham through Judah to Christ (Genesis 49:10,Romans 9:1-7, Galations 3:16), but the birthright was not reckoned after the genealogy (1 Chronicles 5:1-2).

 

This fact alone-without even touching on all of the other fallacies of the following-throws a monkey wrench in all amil, post mil, preterist/covenant/historicist/Calvinist theology.

 

The plan that God has for the church is entirely different and separate from what God has told the nation of Israel.

 

I think you are incredibly confused, with regard to what you believe, what Scripture teaches, AND with regard to what you believe others believe. Your posts are replete with refutations based on your own misconceptions of the belief of others.

 

The problem is that you tell us what Scripture is saying, without letting it speak for itself. Jesus & his Apostles interpret the OT showing that Jesus himself is the fulfilment of prophecy. (Luke 24, Acts 2 & 3)

Luke 24:44 And he said unto them, These are the words which I spake unto you, while I was yet with you, that all things must be fulfilled, which were written in the law of Moses, and in the prophets, and in the psalms, concerning me.

45 Then opened he their understanding, that they might understand the scriptures,

46 And said unto them, Thus it is written, and thus it behooved Christ to suffer, and to rise from the dead the third day:

47 And that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in his name among all nations, beginning at Jerusalem.

48 And ye are witnesses of these things.

 

Acts 3:22 For Moses truly said unto the fathers, A prophet shall the Lord your God raise up unto you of your brethren, like unto me; him shall ye hear in all things whatsoever he shall say unto you.

23 And it shall come to pass, that every soul, which will not hear that prophet, shall be destroyed from among the people.

24 Yea, and all the prophets from Samuel and those that follow after, as many as have spoken, have likewise foretold of these days.

25 Ye are the children of the prophets, and of the covenant which God made with our fathers, saying unto Abraham, And in thy seed shall all the kindreds of the earth be blessed.

26 Unto you first God, having raised up his Son Jesus, sent him to bless you, in turning away every one of you from his iniquities.

 

Note that Peter repeats Moses' warning of destruction for the unbelievers, but reassures the Jews of blessing if they repent. Thousands did repent, but sadly the Jewish authorities rejected their Messiah, the Apostles, and the message of salvation. Those who believed showed their election by their lives, as Paul puts it in 1 Thes:

We give thanks to God always for you all, making mention of you in our prayers;

Remembering without ceasing your work of faith, and labour of love, and patience of hope in our Lord Jesus Christ, in the sight of God and our Father;

Knowing, brethren beloved, your election of God.

For our gospel came not unto you in word only, but also in power, and in the Holy Ghost, and in much assurance; as ye know what manner of men we were among you for your sake.

And ye became followers of us, and of the Lord, having received the word in much affliction, with joy of the Holy Ghost.

 

To answer the OP question, believing Jews are counted among the chosen/elect of God, while unbelieving Jews are NOT chosen/elect.

 

As for:

"Paul shows clearly that there is a difference between Jew, Gentile and the Church:
"Give none offense, neither to the Jews, nor to the Gentiles, nor to the church of God" 1 Cor 10:32.

There are the 3 groups - in context unbelieving Jews & Gentiles, the church comprising believing Jews & Gentiles as one redeemed people of God. As Peter writes:

1Peter 2:But ye are a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, an holy nation, a peculiar people; that ye should shew forth the praises of him who hath called you out of darkness into his marvellous light;

10 Which in time past were not a people, but are now the people of God: which had not obtained mercy, but now have obtained mercy.

Christian believers are a chosen generation .... the people of God. Unbelievers, whether Jew or Gentile are not.

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If, indeed, the Jews had been rejected 100%, never to be re-established, never to ne a remnant, then to whose throne would Jesus have claim, as the Son of David, who will sit upon David's throne? His line was purposely draewn through the kingly line of Judah for a reason, which has yet to be fully fulfilled. If no literal Israel, then the very throne is rejected and of no purpose.

Try thinking about what you have written. Jesus, Son of David, was raised from the dead to sit on David's throne. And, of course, David's throne was the throne of the LORD.

1 CHr. 29:11 Thine, O Lord is the greatness, and the power, and the glory, and the victory, and the majesty: for all that is in the heaven and in the earth is thine; thine is the kingdom, O Lord, and thou art exalted as head above all.

....

23 Then Solomon sat on the throne of the Lord as king instead of David his father, and prospered; and all Israel obeyed him.

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Try thinking about what you have written. Jesus, Son of David, was raised from the dead to sit on David's throne. And, of course, David's throne was the throne of the LORD.

1 CHr. 29:11 Thine, O Lord is the greatness, and the power, and the glory, and the victory, and the majesty: for all that is in the heaven and in the earth is thine; thine is the kingdom, O Lord, and thou art exalted as head above all.

....

23 Then Solomon sat on the throne of the Lord as king instead of David his father, and prospered; and all Israel obeyed him.

Ys, the throne of David, as with all the earth, is God's, but there is a reason Jesus was to be born through the line of Judah. Since He never took the throne of Judah in His first ministry on the earth, if He does not take it literally, then there was really no point to it-He is God-he could have come as anything at all, born of the line of Levi or Dan or Naphtali-but He was born of Judah. And I do believe the Bible is clear that it was that one day he will literally sit upon the throne of Judah and David. His coming is said to be to Jerusalem, and yes, I realize that we stand in very different places on this, so I suppose ther's no arguing it-no matter what, we will stand in different places. I don't believe the second coming has occurred, nor the tribulation, nor the binding  of Satan to make him unable to deceive the nations. The more I read Revelation and Matthew and Zechariah and other related books, the more I see vast difference between what the Bible said would happen, and what has actually occurred in history.

 

And currently, Jesus sits on the throne of Advocate, not ruling, reigning King.

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The Gentile "Bride of Christ" is a totally separate entity, and composed mostly of Gentiles and a small number of Jews.

The "Apostle to the Gentiles", Paul addresses this issue, and reveals the previously hidden "Gospel of Grace".

 

There are a large number of scriptures in the Old Testament that address the "Time of Jacob's Trouble"/"Day of the Lord",  including MOST of Revelation.

This is the time in God's plan for a massive harvest of souls, and the revelation of the False Christ.  It is also a time when God will, once again FOCUS on Israel.

There is a very good reason why the "Bride of Christ" will NOT be here on earth during this time of Tribulation.  Matthew 24 is focused on true genetic Israelites

and NOT the "Church" (Bride of Christ).

 

Matthew 24: 20-21   But pray ye that your flight be not in the winter, neither on the sabbath day: [Jews observe Sabbath]
For then shall be great tribulation, such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time, no, nor ever shall be.
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God has not totally rejected Israel.

Romans 11:1 I say then, Hath God cast away his people? God forbid. For I also am an Israelite, of the seed of Abraham, of the tribe of Benjamin.
Romans 11:2 God hath not cast away his people which he foreknew. Wot ye not what the scripture saith of Elias? how he maketh intercession to God against Israel, saying,
Romans 11:3 Lord, they have killed thy prophets, and digged down thine altars; and I am left alone, and they seek my life.
Romans 11:4 But what saith the answer of God unto him? I have reserved to myself seven thousand men, who have not bowed the knee to the image of Baal.
Romans 11:5 Even so then at this present time also there is a remnant according to the election of grace.

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I think you are incredibly confused, with regard to what you believe, what Scripture teaches, AND with regard to what you believe others believe. Your posts are replete with refutations based on your own misconceptions of the belief of others.

 

The problem is that you tell us what Scripture is saying, without letting it speak for itself. Jesus & his Apostles interpret the OT showing that Jesus himself is the fulfilment of prophecy. (Luke 24, Acts 2 & 3)

Luke 24:44 And he said unto them, These are the words which I spake unto you, while I was yet with you, that all things must be fulfilled, which were written in the law of Moses, and in the prophets, and in the psalms, concerning me.

45 Then opened he their understanding, that they might understand the scriptures,

46 And said unto them, Thus it is written, and thus it behooved Christ to suffer, and to rise from the dead the third day:

47 And that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in his name among all nations, beginning at Jerusalem.

48 And ye are witnesses of these things.

 

Acts 3:22 For Moses truly said unto the fathers, A prophet shall the Lord your God raise up unto you of your brethren, like unto me; him shall ye hear in all things whatsoever he shall say unto you.

23 And it shall come to pass, that every soul, which will not hear that prophet, shall be destroyed from among the people.

24 Yea, and all the prophets from Samuel and those that follow after, as many as have spoken, have likewise foretold of these days.

25 Ye are the children of the prophets, and of the covenant which God made with our fathers, saying unto Abraham, And in thy seed shall all the kindreds of the earth be blessed.

26 Unto you first God, having raised up his Son Jesus, sent him to bless you, in turning away every one of you from his iniquities.

 

Note that Peter repeats Moses' warning of destruction for the unbelievers, but reassures the Jews of blessing if they repent. Thousands did repent, but sadly the Jewish authorities rejected their Messiah, the Apostles, and the message of salvation. Those who believed showed their election by their lives, as Paul puts it in 1 Thes:

We give thanks to God always for you all, making mention of you in our prayers;

Remembering without ceasing your work of faith, and labour of love, and patience of hope in our Lord Jesus Christ, in the sight of God and our Father;

Knowing, brethren beloved, your election of God.

For our gospel came not unto you in word only, but also in power, and in the Holy Ghost, and in much assurance; as ye know what manner of men we were among you for your sake.

And ye became followers of us, and of the Lord, having received the word in much affliction, with joy of the Holy Ghost.

 

To answer the OP question, believing Jews are counted among the chosen/elect of God, while unbelieving Jews are NOT chosen/elect.

 

As for:

"Paul shows clearly that there is a difference between Jew, Gentile and the Church:
"Give none offense, neither to the Jews, nor to the Gentiles, nor to the church of God" 1 Cor 10:32.

There are the 3 groups - in context unbelieving Jews & Gentiles, the church comprising believing Jews & Gentiles as one redeemed people of God. As Peter writes:

1Peter 2:But ye are a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, an holy nation, a peculiar people; that ye should shew forth the praises of him who hath called you out of darkness into his marvellous light;

10 Which in time past were not a people, but are now the people of God: which had not obtained mercy, but now have obtained mercy.

Christian believers are a chosen generation .... the people of God. Unbelievers, whether Jew or Gentile are not.

First of all, always appreciate the peanut gallery ad hominem introductions particularly when attempting to refuting I said without addressing what I said AT ALL.

 

Now lets apply some common sense to your first claim. You assume that in Luke 24, the statement Jesus made "ALL THINGS" (which of course coming from a Calvinist is rather strange that NOW you want "ALL" to mean "ALL") meant that there was nothing left for Jesus to fulfill. Well then that would necessarily include His return. Didn't thing that one all the way through, did you?

 

And your eisegetical approach to Acts 3 fairs no better. What is it that Christ fulfilled in Acts 3? That He should suffer and die (v18). But notice within what is fulfilled are statements of events NOT fulfilled, times of refreshing that "shall come" (v 19). When Jesus made statements about Scriptures being fulfilled, He stated "this day is THIS Scripture fulfilled in your ears". He was identifying a PARTICULAR part of a verse, which is why in Luke 4:20-21, when He quoted Isaiah 61:1-2, He deliberately left out the last half of verse 61:2 "and the day of vengeance of our God".

 

And 1 Peter 1:4 has nothing to do the various elections described in the Bible. As I have shown in my first response, even Jesus was called 'elect', which shows that the term 'election' is not an all encompassing term. Election has always dealt with a certain group within a specific time period. In Romans 11:3-4, it dealt with a specific group Israelites within other Israelites that were elected because they did not bow the knee to Baal. In Romans 8:33, elect is specifically related to those predestinated to be conformed to the image of Christ within the church. In Romans 11:5 there is a specific election of believing Jews, and in 11:15, unbelieving Israel that is now blinded will be "raised from the dead" because this is the covenant that God made with THEM-ISRAEL (not the church) v.27, and THIS remnant is described in Romans 9:27, and shows up in Revelation 7:4-8 as twelve literal tribes of flesh and blood Jews who are later preserved from tribulation wrath in the MOUNTAINS OF ISRAEL. Revelation 12:6, 14.

 

And finally, 
 

 

"Give none offense, neither to the Jews, nor to the Gentiles, nor to the church of God" 1 Cor 10:32.

There are the 3 groups - in context unbelieving Jews & Gentiles, the church comprising believing Jews & Gentiles as one redeemed people of God. As Peter writes:

 

 

No these are not "believing Jews" and "believing Gentiles". They are Jews (saved OR unsaved), Gentiles (saved OR unsaved) and then the Church of God. If the Jews and Gentiles were already saved in 10:32, then Paul would not have explained the reason for not giving offense as "EVEN as I please ALL MEN in all things, not seeking my own profit, but the profit of many that THEY MAY BE SAVED" (v 33). This is the same admonition Paul and Peter give everywhere to maintain a good testimony before all men so as to not be a stumbling block to their salvation,

"Having your conversation honest among the Gentiles: that, whereas they speak against you as evildoers, they may by your good works, which they shall behold, glorify God in the day of visitation." 1 Peter 2:12

 

"This is a faithful saying, and these things I will that thou affirm constantly, that they which have believed in God might be careful to maintain good works. These things are good and profitable unto men." Titus 3:8

 

"In all things shewing thyself a pattern of good works: in doctrine shewing uncorruptness, gravity, sincerity,

 Sound speech, that cannot be condemned; that he that is of the contrary part may be ashamed, having no evil thing to say of you.

 Exhort servants to be obedient unto their own masters, and to please them well in all things; not answering again;

 Not purloining, but shewing all good fidelity; that they may adorn the doctrine of God our Saviour in all things." Titus 2:7-11

 

The context leading up to 1 Corinthians 10:32 was of Paul describing his liberty among UNSAVED GENTILES in the practice of parting in foods that were offered to idols. So yes, 1 Cor 10:32 shows that a Jew is a Jew, a Gentile is a Gentile, a horse is a horse, and the church is the church.

 

The majority of my first post was not even addressed, particularly the Scriptures proving the unfulfilled promises of the birthright in Ephraim, so I'll not belabour further comment toward a rebuttal that did not address any of the other claims I posted that defined the context of what you attempted to refute. 

 

Common sense also tells us that when Jesus told the apostles they would sit on thrones JUDGING THE 12 TRIBES OF ISRAEL (Matthew 19:28) which has NOT HAPPENED YET, that the prophecy concerning Christ ruling from a throne on earth has yet to be fulfilled (Revelation 2:26, 3:21). Unless of course you think that the nations being ruled over are heavenly heathen nations flying on carpets and cities with wings.

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And your eisegetical approach to Acts 3 fairs no better. What is it that Christ fulfilled in Acts 3? That He should suffer and die (v18). But notice within what is fulfilled are statements of events NOT fulfilled, times of refreshing that "shall come" (v 19). When Jesus made statements about Scriptures being fulfilled, He stated "this day is THIS Scripture fulfilled in your ears". He was identifying a PARTICULAR part of a verse, which is why in Luke 4:20-21, when He quoted Isaiah 61:1-2, He deliberately left out the last half of verse 61:2 "and the day of vengeance of our God".

 

 

The reason that he left out he last half of verse 61:2 "and the day of vengeance of our God". was that it was not fulfilled at that time, but he told us when it would be fulfilled:  at the destruction of Jerusalem in AD 66-70. Luke 21:22.  When judgment came on them for filling up the measure of their fathers.

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