Matthew 12:40

[rstrats]

Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a "discussion" with 6th day crucifixion folks, they frequently argue that it is a Jewish idiom for counting any part of a day as a whole day. I wonder if anyone has documentation that shows an example from the first century or before regarding a period of time that is said to consist of a specific number of days as well as a specific number of nights where the period of time absolutey doesn't/can't include at least a part of each one of the specific number of days and at least a part of each one of the specific number of nights?

[ASongOfDegrees]

What is a "sixth day crucifixion" folk? Do you mean those who say Christ rose from the dead on Saturday?

[Invicta]

Three days and three nights, same as Jonah was in the whale.

[rstrats]

ASongOfDegrees,

 

re: "What is a 'sixth day crucifixion'" folk?"

It's someone who thinks that the crucifixion took place on the sixth day of the week.

 

　

 

re: "Do you mean those who say Christ rose from the dead on Saturday?"

NO. See above.

[rstrats]

Invicta,

re: "Three days and three nights, same as Jonah was in the whale."

 

I'm afraid I don't see your point with regard to the request in the OP.

[rstrats]

Since it's been awhile, perhaps someone new looking in will know of some writing.

[ASongOfDegrees]

I think you need to simplify your question because I've read it a few times over and still don't know what you are asking.

[Guest]

Can't you use the evidence for the "Jewish Day" being a 24 our day? Use Genesis, that is before the first century.

"Jewish idiom?"

What part of the Bible do these folks get their argument from?

[rstrats]

ASongOfDegrees

 

re:  "I think you need to simplify your question because I've read it a few times over and still don't know what you are asking."

 

 

I'm afraid I can't ask it any more clearly than I have.   Thanks for at least reading it, though. 

[Alimantado]

I think you need to simplify your question because I've read it a few times over and still don't know what you are asking.

 

I've tried to as well and it appears to be talking about a logical contradiction.

 

If a period of time is defined by a number of days and nights but the period of time also can't include "at least a part of each of" the given days and nights, then the period of time can't include any of the days and nights given to define it. Expressing a period of time that way would be like saying 'January 1st, defined as March 5th'.

 

Obviously he can't be asking about that so I must be getting confused somewhere...

[swathdiver]

A Jewish day began at 6am (sunrise) and night began at 6pm (sunset).  The Baptist Challenge and the Baptist Pillar have articles showing the biblical timeline for Christ's arrest, trial, crucifixtion, death and resurrection.  I have also created an excel spreadsheet that I would be happy to share if you send me your e-mail address in a PM.

 

Jesus was in the tomb for 3 full and literal days and nights, not as the Catholics and Protestants teach.

 

At exactly sundown (6pm) (Wednesday, Nisan 14th ended at 5:59pm) Thursday, Nisan the 15th Christ was buried.  The 15th of Nisan was a High Passover Sabbath day.  The 14th was Passover.  16 Nisan was Jewish Friday.  Jesus came out of the tomb at 6pm on Nisan the 18th, Sunday.  For us, that would be 6pm on Saturday.  3 literal days and nights just as he said he would be. 

[rstrats]

swathdiver,

 

Do you have any information asked for in the OP?

[swathdiver]

swathdiver,

 

Do you have any information asked for in the OP?

 

Only from what I've read in the Baptist Challenge and Baptist Pillar articles.  My faith in the bible is sufficient enough for me, the claim of those using the MVs confuses the facts and they'll never learn anyway.

 

Why is it that important?

[rstrats]

swathdiver,

 

re: "Only from what I've read in the Baptist Challenge and Baptist Pillar articles."

 

OK, maybe someone new looking in will know of some writing.

　

 

 

re: "Why is it that important?"

 

In order to try to determine if the 6th day crucifixion adherents' argument about Matthew 12:40 being an idiom can be shown to be a possibility due to its use in other writings.

[swathdiver]

Why is it so hard not to take Jesus Christ at his word?

Edited March 1, 2013 by swathdiver