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New Cambridge Paragraph Bible


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I believe God has His hand on any translation that is faithful to His Word. How do you know that God had His hand on the KJV any more than the Geneva? Wasn't it King James wanting an "authorized version" to replace the Geneva for England? Doesn't sound like honest motives to me... Nonetheless, it is an excellent translation and has God's hand on it for that reason.


I agreed.

I have read that King James ordered Guards to watch the Scholars. I personally believe that's the Lord's guards and his doing to put everything in perfect order.
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Since we don't have the original manuscripts do you believe that if a particular TR manuscript disagrees with the KJB then the KJB is correct and the manuscript is wrong?


There is no single Greek Textus Receptus manuscript or compilation that I believe completely reflects the originals. It's possible to find what the originals said by exhuastive study, as the King James translators did themselves.
Everything I've seen shows the King James to be perfect, such that it only takes a mustard seed of faith to believe it.
I do believe Scrivener's Greek text to be extremely reliable, since it was compiled from the other Textus Receptus editions, with the purpose of matching the King James...even though I think there are a few tiny discrepancies.
That all being said, my answer to your question is yes. :mrgreen:
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Just a thought:

I don't think it is consider a person worshipping the book as long as if that person knows if a bible got burnt in a house fire, God didn't get burn along with it.


Amen. One is to worship the Word of God, magnified above all His Name; not a specific copy of that Word. If I believe that the Word is found in the KJB...draw your conclusions from that. :)
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Uh, I doubt people who worship a statue of Ganeesh, the false elephant headed god believe he would get burnt up along with the statue, idolatry of any form is wrong, whether or not they believe it to be a actual representation of their god, or merely a physical representation.

-Alen

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Not this topic again... :lol:
Every time the Greek "logos" is translated to mean the Bible, the King James renders it "word," and every time it is translated to mean Jesus, the King James renders it "Word." They have many things in common, obviously, but there is a distinction.
The King James Bible didn't die for your sins.

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Not this topic again... :lol:
Every time the Greek "logos" is translated to mean the Bible, the King James renders it "word," and every time it is translated to mean Jesus, the King James renders it "Word." They have many things in common, obviously, but there is a distinction.
The King James Bible didn't die for your sins.


I am again bewildered that "the Greek" is even mentioned, but as I am forbidden to discuss this topic, I guess I shall have to let it slide. :roll:
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Passover, from the Hebrew "Pesach" and the Greek "Pasach." This word can refer to either the first day of the Passover(Nisan 14), the lamb killed and consumed at the Passover meal, or the entire week of Passover(which includes the days of unleavened bread).

Exo 12:14-20 And this day shall be unto you for a memorial; and ye shall keep it a feast to the LORD throughout your generations; ye shall keep it a feast by an ordinance forever. (15) Seven days shall ye eat unleavened bread; even the first day ye shall put away leaven out of your houses: for whosoever eateth leavened bread from the first day until the seventh day, that soul shall be cut off from Israel. (16) And in the first day there shall be a holy convocation, and in the seventh day there shall be a holy convocation to you; no manner of work shall be done in them, save that which every man must eat, that only may be done of you. (17) And ye shall observe the feast of unleavened bread; for in this selfsame day have I brought your armies out of the land of Egypt: therefore shall ye observe this day in your generations by an ordinance forever. (18) In the first month, on the fourteenth day of the month at even, ye shall eat unleavened bread, until the one and twentieth day of the month at even. (19) Seven days shall there be no leaven found in your houses: for whosoever eateth that which is leavened, even that soul shall be cut off from the congregation of Israel, whether he be a stranger, or born in the land. (20) Ye shall eat nothing leavened; in all your habitations shall ye eat unleavened bread.

The first day of the Passover week was Nisan 14(roughly, Aprilish). The feast went from the 14th through the 21st. Now, beginning on the 14th they slaughtered the lamb(first day of the Passover) and covered the doorposts with the blood and lintels(bitter herbs). Then they were to eat the lamb up to midnight on the 15th, and then destroy the remainder with fire before morning. From the 14th Nisan(first day of Passover) to the 21st Nisan(last day of Passover), the Jews were to eat unleavened bread. This is why Passover is often called The Feast of Unleavened Bread.

Act 12:1-4 Now about that time Herod the king stretched forth his hands to vex certain of the church. (2) And he killed James the brother of John with the sword. (3) And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.) (4) And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.

Note that here, we have the feast of unleavened bread taking place. The feast of unleavened bread was part of Passover, per Luke 22:1.
Luk 22:1 Now the feast of unleavened bread drew nigh, which is called the Passover.
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I dealt with this twice. Passover is a meal, or one day; the Days of Unleavened Bread is a feast, about a week long. Therefore, the idea that "Easter" is incorrect is ludicrous. Passover had already occurred, and Herod was going to wait until after Easter....that's why God said Easter, not Passover. It's not really that hare do accept, unless you're afraid of having the King James Bible as your Final Authority.


Note that here, we have the feast of unleavened bread taking place. The feast of unleavened bread was part of Passover, per Luke 22:1.
Luk 22:1 Now the feast of unleavened bread drew nigh, which is called the Passover.


That says "is called," not "is the Passover." The Words of the Word of God are painfully specific. People may have called it the Passover, but God specifically said that Passover is one day, followed by the Feast. The people who called it the Feast of Passover, therefore, are wrong.
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I dealt with this twice. Passover is a meal, or one day; the Days of Unleavened Bread is a feast, about a week long. Therefore, the idea that "Easter" is incorrect is ludicrous. Passover had already occurred, and Herod was going to wait until after Easter....that's why God said Easter, not Passover. It's not really that hare do accept, unless you're afraid of having the King James Bible as your Final Authority.



That says "is called," not "is the Passover." The Words of the Word of God are painfully specific. People may have called it the Passover, but God specifically said that Passover is one day, followed by the Feast. The people who called it the Feast of Passover, therefore, are wrong.


Okay. Now:
A: Was the feast of unleavened bread associated with the Passover?
B: Doesn't it make sense to have the whole feast called the feast of the Passover since they were connected?
C: Was Luke Jewish?
D: If Luke calls the Feast of Unleavened Bread "the Passover" here in Luke, as the author of the book of Acts, doesn't it make sense for him to have titled the weeklong feast of unleavened bread(which is directly connected to the Passover) as The Passover?
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Okay. Now:
A: Was the feast of unleavened bread associated with the Passover?
B: Doesn't it make sense to have the whole feast called the feast of the Passover since they were connected?
C: Was Luke Jewish?
D: If Luke calls the Feast of Unleavened Bread "the Passover" here in Luke, as the author of the book of Acts, doesn't it make sense for him to have titled the weeklong feast of unleavened bread(which is directly connected to the Passover) as The Passover?


A: Yes, the Passover, and then the Days of Unleavened Bread.
B:Sure, but God said it different in Exodus, so I'll stick with His definition. :)
C: Ummmm...yeah?
D: "Which is called Passover" Pretty simple to me.

Either you really really want to make the King James Bible sound insufficient, or you just like arguing, because you're being very difficult.
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A: Yes, the Passover, and then the Days of Unleavened Bread.
B:Sure, but God said it different in Exodus, so I'll stick with His definition. :)
C: Ummmm...yeah?
D: "Which is called Passover" Pretty simple to me.

Either you really really want to make the King James Bible sound insufficient, or you just like arguing, because you're being very difficult.


A: Then isn't it possible that many called The Feast of Unleavened Bread "The Passover?"
B: I'm not talking about what God called it in Exodus, I'm referring to what it later became known as.
C: No, Luke was Greek.
D: So isn't it possible that Luke, the author of Luke and of Acts, was referring to the entire feast as "Passover" in the book of Acts?
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