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New Cambridge Paragraph Bible


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If they are both acceptable translations of it then can they not both be correct?


No, both Easter and Passover are more specific than pasach. It used to be that pasach would just be transliterated, but when a translation gets more specific than the original language, it'd better be sure from the context that it's the right choice.

And what Katy-Anne and Pastorj said.
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Passover is a single day event. The feast of unleavened bread is the week long event. If a "Bible" doesn't match up with the King James, then the other "Bible" is wrong.

Katy-Anne


Any version is to be measured by it's faithfulness to the underlying text. Never to another version. Comparing version to version is a faulty criteria for determining the accuracy of a version.
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Any version is to be measured by it's faithfulness to the underlying text. Never to another version. Comparing version to version is a faulty criteria for determining the accuracy of a version.


Agreed again. Katy-Anne, you keep stating violently that the KJV is THE Bible yet you give no logical reason why it is superior to every other Bible including the TR. I think you are very much bordering on KJV worship. :roll:
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Katy-Anne keeps stating that the KJV is the standard and that if anything, including the TR is different than it, then the TR is wrong. She is setting the KJV up as the standard rather than God's Word itself in the form of original texts. She has also said that the Greek and Hebrew is not God's Word at all. That sounds like KJV worship to me. :roll:

And I believe the KJV is perfect based on the fact that it excellently translates the Greek and Hebrew. It's the only version I use because I believe it is an excellent translation, not because it's the KJV.

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Let's make a couple stipulations

Katy-anne & MC hold to a double inspiration which makes the KJV perfect and therefore no need to look at the greek or Hebrew.

Kevin & others hold to a single inspriration of the original manuscripts and a line of preservation which brings us to the KJV for English speaking people.

Now that we have settled that, let's get back to the passover issue. Can someone show me, so I don't have to reread this entire thread, where the passover is more than just a 1 day event?

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believe me....Samer and I have both seen KJV worship, and Katy-Anne isn't even close to bordering on that!

KJV worship is when someone says the Bible literally is God.

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Let's make a couple stipulations

Katy-anne & MC hold to a double inspiration which makes the KJV perfect and therefore no need to look at the greek or Hebrew.

Kevin & others hold to a single inspriration of the original manuscripts and a line of preservation which brings us to the KJV for English speaking people.

Now that we have settled that, let's get back to the passover issue. Can someone show me, so I don't have to reread this entire thread, where the passover is more than just a 1 day event?


Passover, from the Hebrew "Pesach" and the Greek "Pasach." This word can refer to either the first day of the Passover(Nisan 14), the lamb killed and consumed at the Passover meal, or the entire week of Passover(which includes the days of unleavened bread).

Exo 12:14-20 And this day shall be unto you for a memorial; and ye shall keep it a feast to the LORD throughout your generations; ye shall keep it a feast by an ordinance forever. (15) Seven days shall ye eat unleavened bread; even the first day ye shall put away leaven out of your houses: for whosoever eateth leavened bread from the first day until the seventh day, that soul shall be cut off from Israel. (16) And in the first day there shall be a holy convocation, and in the seventh day there shall be a holy convocation to you; no manner of work shall be done in them, save that which every man must eat, that only may be done of you. (17) And ye shall observe the feast of unleavened bread; for in this selfsame day have I brought your armies out of the land of Egypt: therefore shall ye observe this day in your generations by an ordinance forever. (18) In the first month, on the fourteenth day of the month at even, ye shall eat unleavened bread, until the one and twentieth day of the month at even. (19) Seven days shall there be no leaven found in your houses: for whosoever eateth that which is leavened, even that soul shall be cut off from the congregation of Israel, whether he be a stranger, or born in the land. (20) Ye shall eat nothing leavened; in all your habitations shall ye eat unleavened bread.

The first day of the Passover week was Nisan 14(roughly, Aprilish). The feast went from the 14th through the 21st. Now, beginning on the 14th they slaughtered the lamb(first day of the Passover) and covered the doorposts with the blood and lintels(bitter herbs). Then they were to eat the lamb up to midnight on the 15th, and then destroy the remainder with fire before morning. From the 14th Nisan(first day of Passover) to the 21st Nisan(last day of Passover), the Jews were to eat unleavened bread. This is why Passover is often called The Feast of Unleavened Bread.

Act 12:1-4 Now about that time Herod the king stretched forth his hands to vex certain of the church. (2) And he killed James the brother of John with the sword. (3) And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.) (4) And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.

Note that here, we have the feast of unleavened bread taking place. The feast of unleavened bread was part of Passover, per Luke 22:1.
Luk 22:1 Now the feast of unleavened bread drew nigh, which is called the Passover.
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Katy-Anne keeps stating that the KJV is the standard and that if anything, including the TR is different than it, then the TR is wrong. She is setting the KJV up as the standard rather than God's Word itself in the form of original texts. She has also said that the Greek and Hebrew is not God's Word at all. That sounds like KJV worship to me. :roll:


You're not being totally honest. There is no such thing as the "original texts." Please quit using that phrase, because it sounds like you actually have the original texts to compare my Bible to. You don't, so please stop saying it like you do.


And I believe the KJV is perfect based on the fact that it excellently translates the Greek and Hebrew. It's the only version I use because I believe it is an excellent translation, not because it's the KJV.


The instant another English Bible is released (per your question earlier), I will be the first to vehemently reject it. Instantly. The King James Bible is God's perfect Word in English, and He doesn't have to provide It in any other language if He doesn't want to. Simply because a "Bible" is translated "faithfully" from the "TR" means absolutely nothing. God's hand has to be in that thing for it to be worth more than two nickels.
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I don't think there's any divine truth in the King James Bible that wasn't in the original manuscripts.


Since we don't have the original manuscripts do you believe that if a particular TR manuscript disagrees with the KJB then the KJB is correct and the manuscript is wrong?
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You're not being totally honest. There is no such thing as the "original texts." Please quit using that phrase, because it sounds like you actually have the original texts to compare my Bible to. You don't, so please stop saying it like you do.



The instant another English Bible is released (per your question earlier), I will be the first to vehemently reject it. Instantly. The King James Bible is God's perfect Word in English, and He doesn't have to provide It in any other language if He doesn't want to. Simply because a "Bible" is translated "faithfully" from the "TR" means absolutely nothing. God's hand has to be in that thing for it to be worth more than two nickels.


Amen and Amen
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What did those in the OT times have to do to get the Scriptures of the OT... after the books of Moses and such... did they have to learn Hebrew and become a "stranger" living among the Jews... or did they have a version in all the languages of that time?

Not being argumentative here, just curious; your take on that...

This however is an argumentative statement

Did you also realize that those who use the LXX believe Greek can correct the Hebrew... But say Ruckman is wrong for saying the English can correct the Greek and Hebrew...

It's a crazy world ain't it brethren?

God bless,

Calvary

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You're not being totally honest. There is no such thing as the "original texts." Please quit using that phrase, because it sounds like you actually have the original texts to compare my Bible to. You don't, so please stop saying it like you do.



The instant another English Bible is released (per your question earlier), I will be the first to vehemently reject it. Instantly. The King James Bible is God's perfect Word in English, and He doesn't have to provide It in any other language if He doesn't want to. Simply because a "Bible" is translated "faithfully" from the "TR" means absolutely nothing. God's hand has to be in that thing for it to be worth more than two nickels.


I believe God has His hand on any translation that is faithful to His Word. How do you know that God had His hand on the KJV any more than the Geneva? Wasn't it King James wanting an "authorized version" to replace the Geneva for England? Doesn't sound like honest motives to me... Nonetheless, it is an excellent translation and has God's hand on it for that reason.
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