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Posted

I believe the KJB is perfect and is the word of God.
I do not believe in advanced revelation. No way, no how.
Read my clarification post a few pages back. Inspiration maintained by way of preservation. The King James Bible's translators just did a really good job going diligently through all the sources and figuring it out for every word. Haven't found them in error yet.
With so much evidence, I believe by a mustard seed of faith that God has preserved His words in the King James Bible.


Samer,

What's your understanding of advanced revelation?

Doc H
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Posted

I don't think there's any divine truth in the King James Bible that wasn't in the original manuscripts.

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No.

The KJB is God's word!


I agree. As are many other translations faithful to the TR.


I don't think there's any divine truth in the King James Bible that wasn't in the original manuscripts.


Agreed. :)
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Posted

The Tyndale Bible is incomplete, and The Geneva Bible disagrees with the King James in Acts 4:12. ;)

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The Tyndale Bible is incomplete, and The Geneva Bible disagrees with the King James in Acts 4:12. ;)


Disagreement with another version is not the issue. If it was disagreement with the underlying texts, that would be the issue.
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Disagreement with another version is not the issue. If it was disagreement with the underlying texts, that would be the issue.


The context supports Easter over Passover, although both are acceptable translations of pasach. In any case, as the King James differs from the Geneva, I don't see how they can both be right, since Easter is different than Passover, although both are pasach in Greek.
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The context supports Easter over Passover, although both are acceptable translations of pasach. In any case, as the King James differs from the Geneva, I don't see how they can both be right, since Easter is different than Passover, although both are pasach in Greek.


Either way, the arrest occurred after Passover right?
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Yes, except that Passover proper was already over at the time of the arrest, and so it would be contextual nonsensical, but that argument could go on forever. :wink:

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Yes, except that Passover proper was already over at the time of the arrest, and so it would be contextual nonsensical, but that argument could go on forever. :wink:


But Passover is a weeklong feast. It's not a single day event.
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The context supports Easter over Passover, although both are acceptable translations of pasach. In any case, as the King James differs from the Geneva, I don't see how they can both be right, since Easter is different than Passover, although both are pasach in Greek.


If they are both acceptable translations of it then can they not both be correct?
Posted

Passover is a single day event. The feast of unleavened bread is the week long event. If a "Bible" doesn't match up with the King James, then the other "Bible" is wrong.

Katy-Anne

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