Members Doc H Posted January 13, 2007 Members Share Posted January 13, 2007 I believe the KJB is perfect and is the word of God. I do not believe in advanced revelation. No way, no how. Read my clarification post a few pages back. Inspiration maintained by way of preservation. The King James Bible's translators just did a really good job going diligently through all the sources and figuring it out for every word. Haven't found them in error yet. With so much evidence, I believe by a mustard seed of faith that God has preserved His words in the King James Bible. Samer, What's your understanding of advanced revelation? Doc H Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members Samer Posted January 13, 2007 Members Share Posted January 13, 2007 I don't think there's any divine truth in the King James Bible that wasn't in the original manuscripts. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members Will Posted January 13, 2007 Members Share Posted January 13, 2007 Which Textus Receptus? : There are dozens of editions of it. I assume you're referring to the 1598 Beza? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members kevinmiller Posted January 13, 2007 Members Share Posted January 13, 2007 No. The KJB is God's word! I agree. As are many other translations faithful to the TR. I don't think there's any divine truth in the King James Bible that wasn't in the original manuscripts. Agreed. :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members Pastorj Posted January 13, 2007 Members Share Posted January 13, 2007 What are these other translations that are faithful to the TR? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members kevinmiller Posted January 13, 2007 Members Share Posted January 13, 2007 The Geneva Bible, the Tyndale Bible, and possibly a few other precursors to the KJV. Foreign translations that are faithful to the TR are also equally God's Word. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members Samer Posted January 13, 2007 Members Share Posted January 13, 2007 The Tyndale Bible is incomplete, and The Geneva Bible disagrees with the King James in Acts 4:12. ;) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members Will Posted January 13, 2007 Members Share Posted January 13, 2007 The Tyndale Bible is incomplete, and The Geneva Bible disagrees with the King James in Acts 4:12. Disagreement with another version is not the issue. If it was disagreement with the underlying texts, that would be the issue. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members kevinmiller Posted January 13, 2007 Members Share Posted January 13, 2007 Disagreement with another version is not the issue. If it was disagreement with the underlying texts, that would be the issue. Excellent post Will! I agree completely. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members Samer Posted January 13, 2007 Members Share Posted January 13, 2007 Disagreement with another version is not the issue. If it was disagreement with the underlying texts, that would be the issue. The context supports Easter over Passover, although both are acceptable translations of pasach. In any case, as the King James differs from the Geneva, I don't see how they can both be right, since Easter is different than Passover, although both are pasach in Greek. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members Will Posted January 13, 2007 Members Share Posted January 13, 2007 The context supports Easter over Passover, although both are acceptable translations of pasach. In any case, as the King James differs from the Geneva, I don't see how they can both be right, since Easter is different than Passover, although both are pasach in Greek. Either way, the arrest occurred after Passover right? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members Samer Posted January 13, 2007 Members Share Posted January 13, 2007 Yes, except that Passover proper was already over at the time of the arrest, and so it would be contextual nonsensical, but that argument could go on forever. : Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members Will Posted January 13, 2007 Members Share Posted January 13, 2007 Yes, except that Passover proper was already over at the time of the arrest, and so it would be contextual nonsensical, but that argument could go on forever. : But Passover is a weeklong feast. It's not a single day event. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members kevinmiller Posted January 13, 2007 Members Share Posted January 13, 2007 The context supports Easter over Passover, although both are acceptable translations of pasach. In any case, as the King James differs from the Geneva, I don't see how they can both be right, since Easter is different than Passover, although both are pasach in Greek. If they are both acceptable translations of it then can they not both be correct? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Guest Posted January 13, 2007 Share Posted January 13, 2007 Passover is a single day event. The feast of unleavened bread is the week long event. If a "Bible" doesn't match up with the King James, then the other "Bible" is wrong. Katy-Anne Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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