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Posted

I'm not sure how anything that you just posted proves your point. :huh:


You might take a "second look" at the chart, with what I posted "in mind".
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Posted

Did you know that all those verses that you posted are also in the Greek and Hebrew? Did you know that they are in the Geneva Bible? Did you know that they are in the Spanish Bible? There is no such thing as Advanced Revelation with regards to the KJV.

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Posted

Did you know that all those verses that you posted are also in the Greek and Hebrew? Did you know that they are in the Geneva Bible? Did you know that they are in the Spanish Bible? There is no such thing as Advanced Revelation with regards to the KJV.


I don't deny those verse are in other bibles, but how a verse is "worded" can have a dramatic effect on the way it is interpreted.

Consider:

KJV:
Mt 24:32 Now learn a parable of the fig tree; When his branch is yet tender,

Most other bibles:
Mt 24:32 Now learn a parable of the fig tree; When it's branch/twig is yet tender,

"It's branch/twig" doesn't describe "WHO" represents the "branch".

Zec 6:12 And speak unto him, saying, Thus speaketh the LORD of hosts, saying, Behold the man whose name is The BRANCH; and he shall grow up out of his place, and he shall build the temple of the LORD:

Jer 33:15 In those days, and at that time, will I cause the Branch of righteousness to grow up unto David;

Ro 10:4 For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness

And the same applies to "her branch".

Mr 13:28 Now learn a parable of the fig tree; When her branch is yet tender,

Mr 13:28 Now learn a parable of the fig tree; When It's branch/twig is yet tender,

His branch was the destruction of Israel, Her branch is the restoration of Israel,

It's branch/twig reveals "NOTHING" of this prophecy.
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Posted

The Geneva Bible has very similar wordings to the KJV and I don't doubt that it says "his" though I can't say for sure. I know the Evidence Bible does because it only makes changes to the "thees" and "thous." And have you studied foreign Bibles to know that they aren't the same?

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Posted

The Geneva Bible has very similar wordings to the KJV and I don't doubt that it says "his" though I can't say for sure. I know the Evidence Bible does because it only makes changes to the "thees" and "thous." And have you studied foreign Bibles to know that they aren't the same?


I don't know your age, but when I was "growing up" in the 40-50's, we didn't have easy access to the information we have today, and that can be bad as well as good.

Any good lawyer will tell you to throw up a smoke screen when you don't have a good defense, this can be accomplished by an "Overload" of information, too much information only "hides" the real "facts".

That is basically the situation today, everyone expects the "internet" to provide the answer to any question, and there's so much information, the truth can't be ascertained.

In the days before internet, people sat down with their bible, tuned out/turn off the world, had a personal relationship and became acquainted with God while studying his word, today, God is such a "stranger", many would have to ask him if he wanted cream/sugar in his coffee.

I don't read Domestic bibles, much less "foreign", :lol:

Over the years I've encounted various mistakes in other translations, mistakes that would break a "Thread" in the fabric wove by scripture, if you're not looking to find God in his word, you won't find him there.
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Posted

I have become completely and totally lost.

I am glad I am not the only one.

Me4Him,

There is nothing worse then an old person who is arrogant about being old. Some people know where and how to find good data. Some people, even young people, know how to come to conclusions about said data. You seem to be proud of the fact that you don't use any supplementary study materials. That's nice and all, but I have met too many people (now one more) who use the same reasoning you do, and end up in borderline heresy... or just heresy. Do you know what the Book of Mormon says? It says that if you don't believe what is written in its pages, to ask God to give you a peace and an understanding about it. Do you know why a heretical book would make such a charge? Because our minds are wicked, and tainted by sin. Now I don't doubt that a person can and should be led by the Holy Spirit, but those who try to "do [their] own studying, without the influence of lexicons, dictionaries, commentaries" usually end up in theological disarray.

You made a fairly wild claim that the KJV (and only the KJV) made some prophetic statements. You have not been able to support that statement save for one loose example of his vs. its. And this is precisely the kind of stuff that gets folks in trouble. autos is a pronoun, but it is a catch all pronoun. It is translated differently throughout the Bible dependent on who or what it is referring to. It is used as his, him, they, their, and its. If it refers to a group of people, it uses their. If it refers to a single person, it is his. If it refers to an object, it uses its. In this case, it refers to a tree. There is nothing in the Greek surrounding that is should reference anything other than the tree. Now we have a few options:

1. We can assume that the translators were simply referring to the tree in a masculine, and in which case we have nothing extra special about this case. We can even go so far as to say that the translators probably should of used its, as that makes more sense to the text.

or as it seems our new friend here thinks

2. The translators were actually referring to God (even though there is no textual support for that) and we should build a fanciful prophetic stance surrounding this more then suspect verse.

Now, even if a person only looked at the context of the verse and did not attempt to try to read into it some super spiritual extra meaning would come to the conclusion that 'his' is a reference to the tree. You do not NEED extra biblical sources to learn the Bible, but they do help.

Also, does the use of 'Its' as a reference to the tree really affect the prophectic nature of the verses? No. The allegory is that of the olive tree being Israel. Whether you use his or its, the meaning is still the same.

So perhaps you have some other examples you would like to CITE as to how the good ol' KJV has things in it that the originals, and other translations do not.
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Posted

Oh, and BTW,

I am digging a bit more, but besides some word ordering in the latter part of the verses, the Matt verse and the Mark verse are identical. So we are still left with why in the word would the translators make one masc. and one feminine. I have limited time today, but AFAIK, there is no good reason.

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Posted

Thanks for getting some things straight Dwayne. It was becoming rather ambiguous. I think you need to do some more studying Me4Him, your points are really kind of all over the place and make very little sense.

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Posted

Oh, and BTW,

I am digging a bit more, but besides some word ordering in the latter part of the verses, the Matt verse and the Mark verse are identical. So we are still left with why in the word would the translators make one masc. and one feminine. I have limited time today, but AFAIK, there is no good reason.


Miracles are another example we can't explain, "EXCEPT" the involvement of God.

My point is "seen/confirmed". :thumb :cool
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Miracles are another example we can't explain, "EXCEPT" the involvement of God.

My point is "seen/confirmed". :thumb :cool


Man translating a verse differently is a miracle? No offense to you Me4Him, but I've heard a lot of people that believe like you and your arguments are the least convincing I've heard yet.
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Posted

Thanks for getting some things straight Dwayne. It was becoming rather ambiguous. I think you need to do some more studying Me4Him, your points are really kind of all over the place and make very little sense.


No offense taken, those who have eyes/ears will understand, those who don't, won't, that's not my problem, I'm only to "tell".

You're not going to understand in "five minutes" what's taken me "years" to learn, Charts save typing, (picture worth thousand words) but the "foundation" (background info) on which they're build isn't always revealed.

However I can "shorten" all those years somewhat for you, try this chart.

vhc1v7.jpg
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Posted

How many of you know that the KJV, when it was being translated, made prophecies that were not in the original document, prophecies 400+ years into the future that have proven to be 100% true.

How many know that Daniel's book wasn't to opened until the time of the end, The KJ begin opening that book??

God is always "Ahead" of man, making a way, and for a great English speaking Christian based nation, they would need the Bible in their language, 1611 the bible came, 1620 the Pilgrims came.

There's a little more to the KJ than meets the eye.


This is still confusing me...if the Book of Daniel was translated into English from the Hebrew, how could it be closed? It would have to be already open.
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This is still confusing me...if the Book of Daniel was translated into English from the Hebrew, how could it be closed? It would have to be already open.


There's a "literal" understanding of scripture, that which we read "on the surface", but there's also a "Spiritual" understanding that a "literal reading" won't reveal, translating the "words" won't reveal the spiritual meaning, it's hidden to worldly knowledge.

1Co 2:14 But the natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him: neither can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned.

Lu 8:10 And he said, Unto you it is given to know the mysteries of the kingdom of God: but to others in parables; that seeing they might not see, and hearing they might not understand.

God doesn't give his "Valuable "PEARLS" (words) to "swine".

Mt 7:6 Give not that which is holy unto the dogs, neither cast ye your pearls before swine,

Mt 13:45 Again, the kingdom of heaven is like unto a merchant man, seeking goodly pearls:

46 Who, when he had found one pearl of great price, went and sold all that he had, and bought it.
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