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How many of you know that the KJV, when it was being translated, made prophecies that were not in the original document, prophecies 400+ years into the future that have proven to be 100% true.

How many know that Daniel's book wasn't to opened until the time of the end, The KJ begin opening that book??

God is always "Ahead" of man, making a way, and for a great English speaking Christian based nation, they would need the Bible in their language, 1611 the bible came, 1620 the Pilgrims came.

There's a little more to the KJ than meets the eye.


Alright! The Advanced Revelation argument. :shootme:
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examples, with sites please examples, with sites please huh?

I am absolutely confused by your post, but it seems you are looking for some mystical proofs that the KJV is superior. I don't care for mysticism very much, but if you'd like to shed some more light on this, we are going to need a little more then some statements without any real data to back them up.


Examples with "SITE", is that the way ya'll study the Bible???

What's the matter with just sitting down with the Bible and letting the Holy Ghost teach you???

"Mystical proof"??? As I said, the truth is always manifested here in the physical world, if you know what you're looking at or for.

Jesus condemned the people of his day for being able to read the signs of the sky, but not the "SIGNS OF THE TIMES".

Lu 12:56 Ye hypocrites, ye can discern the face of the sky and of the earth; but how is it that ye do not discern this time?

Scripture has a "SCHEDULE" within it's pages for all events, including when the Messiah would appear, the reason for Jesus's condemantion.

The last question asked Jesus, "When will you restore Israel", his answer, "it's not for you to know".

The KJV answered that question when they translated "TWIGS" into "HIS BRANCH" (Jesus) and "HER BRANCH". (Israel restored)

Mt 24:32 Now learn a parable of the fig tree; When his branch is yet tender,

Mr 13:28 Now learn a parable of the fig tree; When her branch is yet tender,

If there's to be "Six days" (day=1000 years) and her branch is to be the "Last generation", then her branch can only be restored within a generation of the end of the sixth day, precisely where we find Israel restored as a nation. 1948.


Isa 46:10 Declaring the end from the beginning,

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As I said, there's more to the KJ than most have seen.
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If there's to be "Six days" (day=1000 years) and her branch is to be the "Last generation", then her branch can only be restored within a generation of the end of the sixth day, precisely where we find Israel restored as a nation. 1948.


Where'd you get six days from? :roll

And have you checked the Geneva Bible? I bet the verses are translated very similarly. There is nowhere in the Bible that says anything about the KJV or about God delivering a second and updated copy of the Scriptures to us. Give us something Bible, not circumstantial evidence.
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Examples with "SITE", is that the way ya'll study the Bible???


Now that was funny. :lol:


There is nowhere in the Bible that says anything about the KJV or about God delivering a second and updated copy of the Scriptures to us.


The Bible talks about preservation, where is it perserved then?
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I am KJVP and for a number of reasons.

First to assume that the Holy Spirit used some men whose salvation was questionable at best (literally kings men) is to fall back into the O.T. economy where the Holy Spirit came upon men instead of indwelling them. A careful look at the men who translated the KJV (50 in all) would show that they held too many non biblical practices among which were the practices and beliefs of infant baptism and predestination. Some like John Harmar and Miles Smith were avowed 5 pointers who openly revealed their pro-Calvinism stance while most of the others were more moderate in their stances. Many of the fifty were placed in companies not based on their mastery of the languages but for purely political reasons or to get a better church position in the future. Since the scriptures tell us that HOLY MEN OF OLD were used to write the scriptures and we know that God is immutable how do we then suggest he used ungodly men of new to write and inspired translation?

Secondly the scriptures were broken into six companies and each company was assigned a section to translate. Nearly all of translators were Church of England and there were no Separatist Anabaptists allowed. As a matter of fact history shows that Lancelot Andrews the overseer of the project was actually interrogating Separatist Anabaptists during the translating of the KJV (see God

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Orvals, we have talk about this many, many, many, many, many, many, many, many, many, many, many, many, many, many times in the past. The Apocrypha was NOT part of the Scriptures, but was placed in the middle for historical references. You have maps and a concordance in your Bible now? Is that part of Gods Word too? Same thing, buddy.

And did you also realize that David, who wrote part of the Old Testament, committed adultery and murder? It is amazing who God uses. Find me one person who lived (Besides Jesus) that never committed a sin and is worthy to pen the Scriptures? Just one name would be fine.

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Now that was funny. :lol:


Yea, I don't really understand the response. It should of been obvious that I meant cite, as in citations, as in actual (preferably peer reviewed) statements of these supposed happenings. If however, you have stumbled upon something new, then it should be submitted for review and critique. Given you have pretty graphs, something tells me you did not sit down and "let the Holy Ghost teach you" this stuff. Feel free to give us a link so we can dig a bit deeper.

Oh and I am still absolutely lost how this little bit about the 6 days has anything at all to do with the KJV and its prophecies. Do you think that MVs do not contain the same prophecies? Do you think the TR did not contain these prophecies.

If you want to say that there is more to the Bible than meets the eye, then I will agree. If you are trying to place the KJV above the original language texts, then I refuse.
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The Bible talks about preservation, where is it perserved then?


It is preserved in Bibles that have been faithfully translated from the Greek and Hebrew. I've never read anything that said that it would be preserved in the KJV nor that it would be preserved in one Bible alone. And it certainly never says anything about it being updated.
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It is preserved in Bibles that have been faithfully translated from the Greek and Hebrew. I've never read anything that said that it would be preserved in the KJV nor that it would be preserved in one Bible alone. And it certainly never says anything about it being updated.



Be more specific. Exactly where is it preserved? Which Bibles?
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The KJV, the Geneva, the Evidence, foreign-language Bibles that are faithful to the Greek and Hebrew. Any Bible that is translated faithfully from the Greek and Hebrew is God's Word. That is why the KJV has power, because it is a perfect translation of the Greek and Hebrew. What else could possibly give it power aside from that?

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something tells me you did not sit down and "let the Holy Ghost teach you" this stuff. Feel free to give us a link so we can dig a bit deeper.


That "something" is the "wrong spirit" you're listening too. :-S

The only "link" you'll find is "www.you+HolyGhost+KJ. Bible". :lol

I do my own studying, without the influence of lexicons, dictionaries, commentaries, they don't contain the Info I've found and still seeking.

None of these tell me why Jesus waited until the "Fourth day" before he resurrected Lazarus, or why he spend "TWO DAYS" (5th, 6th) with the "Gentiles woman" (church) at the well, or why the Gentiles were drinking "WATER" from a well given to "Jews".

De 32:2 My doctrine shall drop as the rain,
Joh 4:6 Now Jacob's well was there.
Joh 4:7 There cometh a woman of Samaria (Gentile)
Joh 4:14 But whosoever drinketh of the water that I shall give him shall never thirst;
Joh 4:40 So when the Samaritans were come unto him, they besought him that he would tarry with them: and he abode there two days.

Or why Israel would be blinded these two day while Jesus spent time with the church.

Ho 6:2 After two days will he revive us: (Israel) in the third day he will raise us up, and we shall live in his sight.

Ro 11:25 For I would not, brethren, that ye should be ignorant of this mystery, lest ye should be wise in your own conceits; that blindness in part is happened to Israel, until the fulness of the Gentiles be come in.

I read a slightly different bible than most, even though it's the same words, I recognize every word as having a purpose, and Prefection is evidents of God, this is where the Holy Ghost bears witness and teaches.

For the same reason Israel condemned Jesus, they condemn the "other word".
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Where'd you get six days from? :roll

And have you checked the Geneva Bible? I bet the verses are translated very similarly. There is nowhere in the Bible that says anything about the KJV or about God delivering a second and updated copy of the Scriptures to us. Give us something Bible, not circumstantial evidence.


Ex 23:12 Six days thou shalt do thy work, and on the seventh day (MILL REIGN) thou shalt rest:



Da 12:8 And I heard, but I understood not: then said I, O my Lord, what shall be the end of these things?

9 And he said, Go thy way, Daniel: for the words are closed up and sealed till the time of the end.

10 Many shall be purified, and made white, and tried; but the wicked shall do wickedly: and none of the wicked shall understand; but the wise shall understand.

Just as Jesus told the disciple it wasn't for them to know when Israel would be restored, Daniel's book wasn't to be open to understanding until the "time of the end".

All prophecy made by man between Daniel and the "end time" was made through "Speculation", not "Revelation".

And a sure "Sign" of the "time of the end" is when Daniel's book is opened to understanding, which we have today.

We now know the KJ began the opening of Daniels book, BUT, this wasn't understood until the "time of the end".
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