Members LindaR Posted January 20, 2008 Members Posted January 20, 2008 In his article "Creation and the Virgin Birth", Dr Henry Morris, Ph. D. writes: Therefore, even though He was nurtured in Mary's womb for nine months and born without her ever knowing a man, it was also necessary for all this to have been preceded by supernatural intervention, to prevent His receiving any actual genetic inheritance through her. The body growing in Mary's womb must have been specially created in full perfection, and placed there by the Holy Spirit, in order for it to be free of inherent sin damage. Christ would still be "made of the seed of David according to the flesh" (Romans 1:3), because His body was nurtured and born of Mary, who was herself of the seed of David. He would still be the Son of Man, sharing all universal human experience from conception to death, except sin. He is truly "the seed of the woman" (Genesis 3:15), His body formed neither of the seed of the man nor the egg of the woman, but grown from a unique Seed planted in the woman's body by God Himself. That is, God directly formed a body for the second Adam just as He had for the first Adam (Genesis 2:7). This was nothing less than a miracle of creation, capable of accomplishment only by the Creator Himself. "That holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God" (Luke 1:35). Surely God would devote no more attention to the design and construction of the body of "the first man, of the earth, earthy" than He would to that of "the second man, the Lord from heaven" (I Corinthians 15:47)!http://www.icr.org/article/76/ There is much more in the article to substantiate Dr Morris' writings on the subject of the virgin birth of our Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ. In Genesis 3:15, "her seed" refers to Christ, not a woman's egg. By Mary allowing herself to be the vessel to carry our Lord and Saviour, He was the seed Genesis speaks of. Quote
Members Jerry Posted January 20, 2008 Members Posted January 20, 2008 Yeah, kind of a weird idea he had there. Seed in the Bible often indicated a child or descendant - the passage in Genesis indicating Jesus would come through the woman, via the virgin birth. Quote
Members heartstrings Posted January 20, 2008 Members Posted January 20, 2008 Jesus was conceived by the Holy Ghost Isa 7:14 Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel. Mat 1:1 Quote
Members LindaR Posted January 20, 2008 Author Members Posted January 20, 2008 Jesus was conceived by the Holy Ghost Isa 7:14 Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel. Mat 1:1 Quote
Members matie-k Posted January 21, 2008 Members Posted January 21, 2008 He was fully man (through being concieved in Mary), and fully God (through the work of the Holy Spirit). I've heard that when a child is concieved, the sin comes from the man, not the woman. Also, I've heard that a child's blood make-up is specifically from the father, not the mother. I think this has been discussed here before. I don't have any proof of these things I've heard. Maybe someone else knows more than I do. Quote
Members heartstrings Posted January 21, 2008 Members Posted January 21, 2008 He was fully man (through being concieved in Mary)' date=' and fully God (through the work of the Holy Spirit). I've heard that when a child is concieved, the sin comes from the man, not the woman. Also, I've heard that a child's blood make-up is specifically from the father, not the mother. I think this has been discussed here before. I don't have any proof of these things I've heard. Maybe someone else knows more than I do.[/quote'] I think that originated with Dr. M.R. DeHaan and I've heard this preached from the pulpit several times. Is it a biological fact that the child's blood is inherited from the father? My father and I have different blood types. hmmmm.... If preachers can't get their scientific facts straight, they should just stick with preaching the Bible. Quote
Members JerryNumbers Posted January 21, 2008 Members Posted January 21, 2008 Why did it have to be a virgin birth? Why did Jesus have to be conceived by the Holy Spirit? Could it be that if Jesus had a human father the sin nature would have been passed down to Him. We inherit our sin nature from our father, not our mother, its been passed down thru the ages by Adam. Quote
Members LindaR Posted January 21, 2008 Author Members Posted January 21, 2008 How Could the Creator Become Man? Since "by Him [that is by Christ, the Word of God] were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth" (Colossians 1:16), He must have created the very body in which He would dwell when He "was made flesh." This body, however, could not be a body produced by the normal process of human reproduction, for it must be a body unmarred either by inherent sin spiritually or by inherited genetic defects physically or mentally. It would necessarily have to be a perfect body, a body like that of the first man He had created long ago in the beautiful garden of Eden. He would, in fact, come to be called "the last Adam" (I Corinthians 15:45), since there would never be another man created as that "first Adam" had been. There would be one important difference, however. The first Adam was created and made as a full-grown man, but the second must be "in all things . . . made like unto His brethren" (Hebrews 2:17). From conception to death, He must be "in all points . . . like as we are, yet without sin" (Hebrews 4:15). In particular, His blood must be "precious blood . . . as of a lamb without blemish and without spot" (I Peter 1:19), for that blood must be "offered . . . without spot to God" (Hebrews 9:14). Thus the body of the second Adam must be formed directly by God and placed in a virgin's womb. This had been the very first promise made after the first Adam brought sin and death into the world. Speaking of "the woman, and . . . her seed," God said that He "shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise His heel" (Genesis 3:15). This prophecy was addressed to Satan, whose lie had elicited Eve's sin. This wonderful body would not grow from a man's seed, as in every other human birth, nor would it grow from a woman's egg, for in either case a sin-carrying and mutation-carrying embryo would necessarily result. It must instead be a seed specially formed by the Creator Himself, then planted in the virgin's womb, where it forthwith would become His "tabernacle" for thirty-three years as He lived on His planet Earth among those He had come to save.When God Became Man by Henry Morris, Ph.D.http://www.icr.org/article/375/ The more I study about the Incarnation and virgin birth of our Lord, the more I love Him. God's love for us is so marvelous and His mercy endureth forever! 1 John 4:9 In this was manifested the love of God toward us, because that God sent his only begotten Son into the world, that we might live through him.1 John 4:10 Herein is love, not that we loved God, but that he loved us, and sent his Son to be the propitiation for our sins.John 3:16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life. Quote
Members matie-k Posted January 21, 2008 Members Posted January 21, 2008 No need for sarcasm. I'm not speaking of blood types. Quote
Members Jerry Posted January 21, 2008 Members Posted January 21, 2008 The Bible, in at least two places, teaches that the sinful nature comes through the man - therefore it was necessary for Jesus to be the seed of the woman, not of man. Romans 5:12 Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned: (see context too) Jeremiah 22:28-30 Is this man Coniah a despised broken idol? is he a vessel wherein is no pleasure? wherefore are they cast out, he and his seed, and are cast into a land which they know not? O earth, earth, earth, hear the word of the LORD. Thus saith the LORD, Write ye this man childless, a man that shall not prosper in his days: for no man of his seed shall prosper, sitting upon the throne of David, and ruling any more in Judah. This is one of the reasons why Jesus could not inherit the royal lineage/inheritance through Joseph - as this verse teaches that a male child will not of Coniah's (Jehoaikim's son) will not prosper or rule on the throne. Mary was also in the royal lineage - and therefore Jesus could inherit through her, without also being affected by the curse on Coniah's line. Quote
Members JerryNumbers Posted January 21, 2008 Members Posted January 21, 2008 The Bible, in at least two places, teaches that the sinful nature comes through the man - therefore it was necessary for Jesus to be the seed of the woman, not of man. Romans 5:12 Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned: (see context too) Jeremiah 22:28-30 Is this man Coniah a despised broken idol? is he a vessel wherein is no pleasure? wherefore are they cast out, he and his seed, and are cast into a land which they know not? O earth, earth, earth, hear the word of the LORD. Thus saith the LORD, Write ye this man childless, a man that shall not prosper in his days: for no man of his seed shall prosper, sitting upon the throne of David, and ruling any more in Judah. This is one of the reasons why Jesus could not inherit the royal lineage/inheritance through Joseph - as this verse teaches that a male child will not of Coniah's (Jehoaikim's son) will not prosper or rule on the throne. Mary was also in the royal lineage - and therefore Jesus could inherit through her, without also being affected by the curse on Coniah's line. I asked that question because some do not see it that way, that each person falls on their own, that the sin nature is not inherited, not passed on by the father to his children. I just wondered if anyone around here saw it that way. Quote
Members heartstrings Posted January 21, 2008 Members Posted January 21, 2008 No need for sarcasm. I'm not speaking of blood types. I did not intend sarcasm. If a person's blood makeup was inherited from the father, would it not stand to reason that the blood types would be the same? Quote
Members Psalms18_28 Posted January 21, 2008 Members Posted January 21, 2008 Each child supply their own blood... The Jews were choosen to make way for Mary so she will give a Virgin Birth to Christ. If they were chosen, then it is possible that Jesus inherit Mary's flesh... but not blood. Quote
Members Jerry Posted January 21, 2008 Members Posted January 21, 2008 I asked that question because some do not see it that way' date=' that each person falls on their own, that the sin nature is not inherited, not passed on by the father to his children. I just wondered if anyone around here saw it that way.[/quote'] The Bible does teach that we inherit Adam's fallen nature - which is why even a baby will die (death comes because of sin); however, we are lost and guilty of Hell because of our own sin. No one in the Bible ever faced judgement or condemnation just because of their sinful nature - but because of their own personal sins. Quote
Members LindaR Posted January 21, 2008 Author Members Posted January 21, 2008 I think we all agree that sin is passed down through Adam (I believe Adam represents mankind--both male and female)...therefore all mankind is born with a sin nature...none are exempt. A woman's ovum carry defects in the nucleus (called DNA), which means that Mary's ovum were not perfect and if Mary's ovum was used in the incarnation of Jesus Christ, wouldn't those defects in the DNA be passed on to Jesus....unless, by some miracle, God would remove the DNA from Mary's ovum?Romans 5:12 Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned: Let me ask you this: If sin isn't passed down biologically, how is it passed down? How do we become sinners? Romans 3:23 states that all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God. Why did Christ have to be born of a virgin? David knew that he was a sinner, for Psalm 51:5 states:Psalms 51:5 Behold, I was shapen in iniquity; and in sin did my mother conceive me. Jesus Christ came in the "likeness of sinful flesh"...Romans 8:3 For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:Hebrews 2:14 Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and blood, he also himself likewise took part of the same; that through death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil; That verse in Hebrews says that Jesus "took part" of the same (flesh and blood)...but was not a "partaker" of the same (flesh and blood). How did He do this if there was any human intervention (Mary's ova used) in the Incarnation and virgin birth of Christ? There are too many unanswered questions if one disregards the biological passing down of sin. The Incarnation and virgin birth of Christ was 100% of God, from start to finish...without human intervention. Quote
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