Can divorce be a pastor or deacon?

[Guest Guest]

So "the cause of fornication" is allowable for divorce?

Also, what if "he" doesn't put "her" away (the man doesn't divorce the wife) but it is the reverse?

Is there any place the Scriptures address that specific scenario (in a similar manner as Matthew 5:32)?

This verse should explain it clearly, sir [i am referring to the second line of your post]:
(Mark 10:12) - "And if a woman shall put away her husband, and be married to another, she committeth adultery."

Also, sir, I am not exactly sure what point you are trying to make with your first and last lines. Could you please clarify?

I just pointed out Scofield because many of your IFBers use Scofield's reference Bible AND he was an ordained minister.

Just because he was an ordained minister does not make it right.

We should take God's Word over man's words, and God's actions over man's actions.
Also, gentlemen, are you aware the Bible says that God hates divorce? Look:
(Malachi 2:16) - "For the LORD, the God of Israel, saith that he hateth putting away: for one covereth violence with his garment, saith the LORD of hosts: therefore take heed to your spirit, that ye deal not treacherously."
Putting Away: Or, divorce.

Here are some more verses to consider:
(Matthew 19:3-9) - "The Pharisees also came unto him, tempting him, and saying unto him, Is it lawful for a man to put away his wife for every cause? {4} And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female, {5} And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh? {6} Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder. {7} They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away? {8} He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so. {9} And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery."

(Mark 10:2-12) - "And the Pharisees came to him, and asked him, Is it lawful for a man to put away his wife? tempting him. {3} And he answered and said unto them, What did Moses command you? {4} And they said, Moses suffered to write a bill of divorcement, and to put her away. {5} And Jesus answered and said unto them, For the hardness of your heart he wrote you this precept. {6} But from the beginning of the creation God made them male and female. {7} For this cause shall a man leave his father and mother, and cleave to his wife; {8} And they twain shall be one flesh: so then they are no more twain, but one flesh. {9} What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder. {10} And in the house his disciples asked him again of the same matter. {11} And he saith unto them, Whosoever shall put away his wife, and marry another, committeth adultery against her. {12} And if a woman shall put away her husband, and be married to another, she committeth adultery."
God bless,
Crushmaster.

[Mrs. T]

So "the cause of fornication" is allowable for divorce?

Also, what if "he" doesn't put "her" away (the man doesn't divorce the wife) but it is the reverse?

Is there any place the Scriptures address that specific scenario (in a similar manner as Matthew 5:32)?

"The cause of fornication" is in the context of a Jewish betrothal. Several sources I've heard about Jewish customs say that a man and woman would be engaged, so to speak, yet call each other "husband" and "wife" for a time (approx. 1 year). The man would prepare for the upcoming marriage during the betrothal period, and during that time he could legally put away his wife. "Fornication" in the Bible refers to premarital immorality, while "adultery" refers to extramarital immorality, including divorce and remarriage. "Saving for the cause of fornication" is often thought of as the exception clause, but it actually doesn't provide any exception.

If a man has "put away" his wife, he has sinned, and his ability to lead others would be very questionable. However, it could be that the wife left him for spiritual reasons, as in 1 Cor. 7:15: "But if the unbelieving depart, let him depart. A brother or a sister is not under bondage in such cases: but God hath called us to peace." I'm not sure whether that would allow the man to take a place of spiritual leadership in the church, as there might be greater temptation for him, but at least he has not sinned.

After divorce, if either person remarries another spouse, it's adultery. (Does that mean that they are really still married in God's sight?)

[John81]

"The cause of fornication" is in the context of a Jewish betrothal. Several sources I've heard about Jewish customs say that a man and woman would be engaged, so to speak, yet call each other "husband" and "wife" for a time (approx. 1 year). The man would prepare for the upcoming marriage during the betrothal period, and during that time he could legally put away his wife. "Fornication" in the Bible refers to premarital immorality, while "adultery" refers to extramarital immorality, including divorce and remarriage. "Saving for the cause of fornication" is often thought of as the exception clause, but it actually doesn't provide any exception.

If a man has "put away" his wife, he has sinned, and his ability to lead others would be very questionable. However, it could be that the wife left him for spiritual reasons, as in 1 Cor. 7:15: "But if the unbelieving depart, let him depart. A brother or a sister is not under bondage in such cases: but God hath called us to peace." I'm not sure whether that would allow the man to take a place of spiritual leadership in the church, as there might be greater temptation for him, but at least he has not sinned.

After divorce, if either person remarries another spouse, it's adultery. (Does that mean that they are really still married in God's sight?)

To an extent, even with a divorce, God still expects the divorced couple to basically consider themselves as if they are still married...God says they should either be reconcilled or remain as they are, not marrying someone else. God says marriage is "til death do us part" and these verses indicate that even if divorced, God considers the "til death do us part" aspect to be in force.

The only real "exception" given is with regards to a person coming to Christ after marriage and their unsaved spouse divorces them. At that point the saved person has not sinned (unless it was them who pushed for divorce) and are allowed to marry in accord with Scripture.

As you point out, the "fornication exception", for the most part, doesn't apply to most today because we don't practice a betrothal period as did the Jews.

[quinkie]

Can a man who has never been married be a pastor?

[Mrs. T]

Can a man who has never been married be a pastor?

I don't think there's anything in the Bible that says he shouldn't be a pastor. He just wouldn't have the personal experience for marital counseling like married pastors have.

[Standing Firm In Christ]

A man must be married in order to be a pastor. Paul told Timothy one of the qualifications is the man MUST BE the husband of one wife.

How can a man who has never been married be said to be the husband of one wife?

[DennisD]

A man must be married in order to be a pastor. Paul told Timothy one of the qualifications is the man MUST BE the husband of one wife.

How can a man who has never been married be said to be the husband of one wife?

So, if he got divorced in the past and then wanted to be a Pastor later on (while single)...he would be unqualified because he didn't remarry? Not because he divorced but just because he didn't remarry?

[Standing Firm In Christ]

Husband of one wife means husband of one wife last time I checked.

If he is divorced but doesn't remarry, he is no longer the husband of one wife. He has no wife.

[DennisD]

Husband of one wife means husband of one wife last time I checked.

If he is divorced but doesn't remarry, he is no longer the husband of one wife. He has no wife.

Yes or no would have sufficed.

[DennisD]

What about if a Pastor's wife dies. Does he have to leave the ministry?

[Standing Firm In Christ]

Paul's instruction to young Timothy referred to the present... the here and now.

MUST BE (present tense) MUST HAVE BEEN (past tense)

Must be the husband of one wife.

If the wife dies, the pastor should either step down, or remarry if he wishes to continue his pastorate.

[DennisD]

Ok, so that would mean he'd have to step down pretty much right away and I'm assuming he'd be grieving for quite some time so he wouldn't remarry any time soon. Do you think scripture gives any sort of leeway as far as time after the wife dies when the Pastor would be required to step down?

[Standing Firm In Christ]

He must be the husband of one wife. I don't see any leeway. If a pastor's wife dies, he needs to call in another minister who meets the qualifications for pastoring. Whether temporary (until he remarries) or permanent.

[DennisD]

Interesting, thanks.

[quinkie]

Can he be a Pastor if he has no children or if the children he has are wayward?