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Romans 3:25 "remission of sins that are past"

"In those days there was no king in Israel: every man did that which was right in his own eyes." Judges 21:25

What is your Final Authority? Do you believe the promises of God to give us a Book containing all His inspired and inerrant words, or do you believe, as most Christians today, that there is no inerrant Bible in any language? Is your Final Authority the King James Holy Bible, or is it A Lexicon, another commentator or your own understanding?

There are many today who heap fulsome praise on that old Book telling us how wonderful it is, but then they add that its "archaic" language needs to be updated, and various "errors" and "mistranslations" corrected. Most Updaters and Bible Correctors will start out with a list that includes such words as "letteth", "conversation", and "prevent", but soon reveal their desire to be their own Final Authority (and your's as well) when they come right out and tell us the King James translators dropped the ball when translating several Greek or Hebrew words like "brass", "unicorns", "Easter", "damnation", or the two examples we will look at in this little study, "for the REMISSION of sins" (Romans 3:25) and "I ALLOW not" in Romans 7:15.

One such Christian brother who "prefers" the King James Bible over the modern versions, yet apparently does not consider it to be the inerrant words of God, wrote to me with these two examples of "error" and difficulty in the old Book.

He writes: Hello Will, "For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God; being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus: whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for THE REMISSION of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God; To declare, I say, at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus." Romans 3:23-26 (King James Bible)

He then includes a reference to a certain Greek Lexicon by Thayer - "paresis, Thayer Definition:1) passing over, letting pass, neglecting, disregarding." Then he asks: "How would you have translated the word remission in the Romans passage? This is the only time the word paresis is translated into the English word remission. I am not a Greek scholar or anything like that, but it seems to me that remission is a different word than what Paul actually used. "Passing over" and "release from bondage" are two different things. There is remission of sins for the child of God. But is this what Paul meant here in this sentence? It's translational "errors" like this one that those who do not trust the KJV point out to us who do. Is it not to our advantage to be aware and ready with a solid and TRUE answer?" - Chris

Notice first that brother Chris got the idea that the King James Bible is in error because he saw another definition of the word in a lexicon. Aren't people funny? Lexicons, commentaries and scholars are not inspired and they frequently disagree with one another, yet instead of believing The Bible, this brother has lost his faith in an inerrant Book by believing what some guy wrote in a lexicon.

Brother Chris did not provide us with all that is found in Thayer's lexicon, and why Thayer, (who himself denied the deity of the Lord Jesus Christ), thought that "HAD PASSED OVER the sins that were previously committed" was the correct way to translate this passage. Thayer actually goes on to say: "passing over, neglecting, disregarding - because God had patiently let pass the sins committed previously to the expiatory death of Christ, i.e. HAD TOLERATED, HAD NOT PUNISHED, and so man's conception of his holiness was in danger of becoming dim, if not extinct." (Caps are mine)

Is what Thayer thought about God having neglected, tolerated, and not punished sins Biblically correct? Definitely not, as we shall soon see.

Lexicons and commentaries are not the inspired words of God. Only the King James Bible is the inerrant word of God. Most lexicons are written by men who do not believe any Bible is the inspired and inerrant word of God, and they often employ pagan and secular usages in defining Biblical words. They also happen to frequently disagree with each other.

Chris mentioned Thayer's lexicon, but according to other lexicons, a legitimate meaning of the word paresis is "remission" of sins. Liddell and Scott's huge Greek-English lexicon, on page 1337 says of the word paresis - " 1. a letting go, a dismissal, a release; 2. a slackening of strength; 3. "REMISSION of debts", and then it specifically lists Romans 3:35 as a reference.

In Moulton and Milligan's The Vocabularly of the Greek New Testament, under the word paresis listed on page 493, they give three citations from early Greek writers where the meaning of this word is "the remission, or forgiving of a debt".

Barnes' Notes on the New Testament - "For the remission of sins. Margin, Passing over. The word here used (paresin) occurs nowhere else in the New Testament. It means passing by, as not noticing; and hence FORGIVING. A similar idea occurs in Micah 7:18: "Who is a God like unto thee, that passeth by the transgression of the remnant of his inheritance?" IN ROMANS IT MEANS FOR THE PARDONING, OR IN ORDER TO PARDON PAST TRANSGRESSION." (Caps are mine)

Not only does the King James Bible translate this word in Romans 3:25 as the "remission" of sins, but so also do Wycliffe 1395, the Italian Diodati (per la remission de' peccati),the Spanish Las Sagradas Escrituras of 1569 (para la remisi

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Romans 7:15 "For that which I do I allow not"

Another word in the King James Bible that is frequently criticized as being an erroneous translation is found in Romans 7:15 where we read: "For that which I do I ALLOW NOT: for what I would, that do I not; but what I hate, that do I."

The Bible critics tell us the Greek words "ou ginosko" should be translated as "I KNOW not" or "I do not UNDERSTAND". The NKJV, NASB, NIV say: "For what I am doing, I DO NOT UNDERSTAND. For what I will to do, that I do not practice; but what I hate, that I do." Several other versions say: "For what I do, I KNOW not."

First of all, it is readily admitted that the verb "ginosko" usually means "to know", but as with most words in English and in Greek or Hebrew, single words can have a multiplicity of meanings depending on the varying contexts. Not only is the King James Bible reading of "that which I do I allow not" not an error, but it is far more accurate and does not create a contradiction.

Other Bible translations both foreign and English, as well as some commentators and lexicons agree with the meaning found in the King James Bible of Romans 7:15. Liddell and Scott's unabridged Greek- English lexicon, and the abridged edition of 1887 both tell us that the Greek verb ginosko can have the meaning of "to determine, to decree that, or to decide upon".

Barnes' Notes on the New Testament comments on Romans 7:15: "I allow not. I do not approve; I do not wish it; the prevailing bent of my inclinations and purposes is against it. Greek, "I know not." See the margin. The word know, however, is sometimes used in the sense of approving. Revelation 2:24, "Which have not known [approved] the depths of Satan." Compare Psalms 101:4, "I will not know a wicked person." Jeremiah 1:5. "

John Gill comments: For that which I do, I allow not?"The apostle having cleared the law from the charge of being the cause either of sin or death, and taken the blame to himself, proceeds to give an account of the struggle and combat he found in himself between the flesh and spirit; "that which I do, I allow not". That which he did was evil, since he allowed not of it; but this is to be understood not of any notorious crime committed by him, nor of a sinful course of life... but of internal lusts, the workings of corruptions in his heart, and which are real actions of the mind, together with the various frailties and infirmities of life: when that apostle says that what he did, (ginwskw) , "I know not": his meaning is, not that he was utterly ignorant of them, of their nature and operations; that he was insensible of their motions, and unconcerned about them; for his sense of them, and concern for them, are expressed by him in the strongest terms, "I know", "I find", "I see", "O wretched man"? (Romans 7:18,21,23,24) ... rather, "I do not approve" of them, I dislike, abhor, and detest them; I cannot excuse or palliate them, but must condemn them; so words of knowledge in the Hebrew language are expressive of love, liking, and approbation; see (Psalms 1:6) (Hosea 8:4) (Genesis 18:19) ; on which last text, "I know him", says Jarchi, "it is the language of love", or a phrase expressive of strong affection; and so here, I know not, I do not like, love, and approve of these things, or I do not "allow" of them, and indulge myself in them, I loathe them and myself for them."

Adam Clarke comments: " What I am continually labouring at I allow not, ou ginwskw, I do not acknowledge to be right, just, holy, or profitable."

Agreeing with the King James Bible reading of "For that which I do I ALLOW NOT" are the Bishops' Bible 1568, the Geneva Bible of 1599, Daniel Mace's 1729 translation, Webster's 1833 translation, the Italian Riveduta 1927 (Perch

Posted
Lexicons and commentaries are not the inspired words of God. Only the King James Bible is the inerrant word of God. Most lexicons are written by men who do not believe any Bible is the inspired and inerrant word of God' date=' and they often employ pagan and secular usages in defining Biblical words. They also happen to frequently disagree with each other[/quote']


Well said...Brandplucked. :amen::goodpost:


Posted
Oh man' date=' I can see you are not a graduate of the US Military's Concise Writing school........................ :cool[/quote']


trc...brother Will knows a lot about the KJVO and other versions. He is what I call a Bible scholar. :amen:


I enjoy this valuable information. :smile
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