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Rightly Dividing?


DaveW

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Posted

For those of you that hate kmowledge....I quoted a pre-1611 English Bible to show that "pascall" and "ester" are the same thing.

Relevance?

Tyndale is the one who coined the English word: "passover", so I quoted Tyndale....

Just because we know that the AV is God's Word, doesn't mean we cant look at its predecessors for context in understanding English word Etymology....the translators certainly did.
The previous translations were "diligently compared and revised", says so on the title page of the AV.

Please don't pretend that I referenced some Modern Version, to show some doctrinal preference.
I was simply proving that IN ENGLISH, prior to 1611, passover and easter were synonyms.

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Posted

For those of you that hate kmowledge....I quoted a pre-1611 English Bible to show that "pascall" and "ester" are the same thing.

Relevance?

Tyndale is the one who coined the English word: "passover", so I quoted Tyndale....

Just because we know that the AV is God's Word, doesn't mean we cant look at its predecessors for context in understanding English word Etymology....the translators certainly did.
The previous translations were "diligently compared and revised", says so on the title page of the AV.

Please don't pretend that I referenced some Modern Version, to show some doctrinal preference.
I was simply proving that IN ENGLISH, prior to 1611, passover and easter were synonyms.

Unfortunately Tyndale's bible was also showing that there was still a bit of Catholic influence in his Bible, which is why it was completely removed in the KJV, except in reference to the holiday that Herod kept, which there, while OBserved during the days of unleavened bread, (after Paschal/Passover), was the pagan Eostre, Easter, the celebration of Ishtar.

 

Even today we can see where Catholic influence plays a part in non-catholic churches, like the term trinity, which, while perhaps having the proper meaning, is not biblical, but a Catholic term-the biblical term being the godhead.

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Posted

Unfortunately Tyndale's bible was also showing that there was still a bit of Catholic influence in his Bible, which is why it was completely removed in the KJV, except in reference to the holiday that Herod kept, which there, while OBserved during the days of unleavened bread, (after Paschal/Passover), was the pagan Eostre, Easter, the celebration of Ishtar.

 

Even today we can see where Catholic influence plays a part in non-catholic churches, like the term trinity, which, while perhaps having the proper meaning, is not biblical, but a Catholic term-the biblical term being the godhead.

Actually, the AV translation really had nothing to do with it having RC influence (though that may be a true statement) it was translated by guidance and inspiration of God, to be translated correctly and preserved for us today.  The AV is more accurate and complete in its translation, to give us a correct understanding than its predecessor, the Tyndale's Bible.

 

The Godhead verses and John 5:7 (removed from RC approved bibles) "these three are one" give us all we need to know that God is one in three persons.  the keeping of the Term Trinity has been a bain on Christians because it coining was from RC scholars.

 

It is like saying ALL Christians are guilty of the atrocities of the Crusades.  When it is clearly the RC church that is guilty of them.

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Posted

For those of you that hate kmowledge....I quoted a pre-1611 English Bible to show that "pascall" and "ester" are the same thing.

Relevance?

Tyndale is the one who coined the English word: "passover", so I quoted Tyndale....

Just because we know that the AV is God's Word, doesn't mean we cant look at its predecessors for context in understanding English word Etymology....the translators certainly did.
The previous translations were "diligently compared and revised", says so on the title page of the AV.

Please don't pretend that I referenced some Modern Version, to show some doctrinal preference.
I was simply proving that IN ENGLISH, prior to 1611, passover and easter were synonyms.

It matters not what your reasoning was.  Simply put, board rules are to use only the KJV.  Look all you want at predecessors.  But quote only KJV.  And don't be quite so sneering at folks...

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Posted
It matters not what your reasoning was. Simply put, board rules are to use only the KJV. Look all you want at predecessors. But quote only KJV. And don't be quite so sneering at folks...
I used the Tyndale quote as a pre-modern English dictionary. You can't understand this? Tyndale made up the word : "passover", that we have in our Modern English A.V. The speculation that Easter isn't Passover comes from ignorance of English, rather than ignorance of Scripture. Pascall and Ester are the same word, in 2 different languages. Pascall is transliterated Hebrew. Ester is Germanic. Remember that "Easter" appears in our A.V., and there was no RCC adapting to pagan Germanic rites, in the 1st century a.d., so it cant be referencing that. There is an attempt to discredit our Bible by modernists, who say that the A.V. translators were influenced by RCC traditions, and made a mistake putting "Easter" in the text. When we parrot their talking points, and claim that "Easter" was a Roman Holiday, rather than a translation of "Paschal", we set up our future generations for doubt in God's Word. Even on this board, Tyndale, who died for his contribution to our A.V.,and the Reina Valera is being poo-pooed as too RCC.
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Posted

It's not that hard to understand - the moderators have asked you not to.

Why are you still arguing about it?

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Posted

I used the Tyndale quote as a pre-modern English dictionary. You can't understand this? Tyndale made up the word : "passover", that we have in our Modern English A.V. The speculation that Easter isn't Passover comes from ignorance of English, rather than ignorance of Scripture. Pascall and Ester are the same word, in 2 different languages. Pascall is transliterated Hebrew. Ester is Germanic. Remember that "Easter" appears in our A.V., and there was no RCC adapting to pagan Germanic rites, in the 1st century a.d., so it cant be referencing that. There is an attempt to discredit our Bible by modernists, who say that the A.V. translators were influenced by RCC traditions, and made a mistake putting "Easter" in the text. When we parrot their talking points, and claim that "Easter" was a Roman Holiday, rather than a translation of "Paschal", we set up our future generations for doubt in God's Word. Even on this board, Tyndale, who died for his contribution to our A.V.,and the Reina Valera is being poo-pooed as too RCC.

See, prophet?  Yet again with the insults.  I understand a lot more than you condescendingly give me credit for.  

 

If you desire to talk about what Tyndale wrote, that's all well and good.  But your post wasn't an introduction to a discussion on it. It was simply a quote of a non-KJB verse. What you posted in your follow-up arguing (leaving aside the insults as to our intelligence and lack of knowledge) would have made it more appropriate.

 

Argument is over. Period.  

 

And back to topic, which was not a discussion of what Easter is or is not (this is addressed to all...)

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Posted

See, prophet? Yet again with the insults. I understand a lot more than you condescendingly give me credit for.

If you desire to talk about what Tyndale wrote, that's all well and good. But your post wasn't an introduction to a discussion on it. It was simply a quote of a non-KJB verse. What you posted in your follow-up arguing (leaving aside the insults as to our intelligence and lack of knowledge) would have made it more appropriate.

Argument is over. Period.

And back to topic, which was not a discussion of what Easter is or is not (this is addressed to all...)

I didn't mean it as condescension, I was honestly asking you if you understood. I see , by your answer, here, that you did.

I understand the protocol violation, and will (in the future) post accordingly.

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