How Do You Rightly Divide The Word Of Truth

[AVBibleBeliever]

Apples to oranges comparison. You're talking about new revelation before even the Old Testament was closed. Additionally, both instances you listed the "second inspiration" was given to the same person again, not 1500 years later to a group of people.

 

 

 

These aren't really arguments for secondary inspiration, but rather for the various forms textual criticism and the Westcott-Hort text.

 

I'll start another thread.

You are defining second inspiration to fit your meaning but it is clear that in both instances the originals were lost and God himself guided the prophet to rewrite them and add even more to them.

[AVBibleBeliever]

One thing to add. When the scriptures say we have the mind of Christ, we do. It's our Bible.

It is also something you possess now a right thinking and attitude not just the word of God.  Be careful of limiting that mind to just God's written word, of which that many men change at a whim and say it is wrongly translated or a better translated would be by going to the Greek. 

 

How could the Bible by itself be the mind in which Paul talked about when it was not even completed yet at that historical moment?

 

No there is a mind set you have now you did not have before it is part f the divine nature you already possess.

[AVBibleBeliever]

The KJV doesn't need interpreting it's already in English. I may need help understanding a passage. My Bible has related verses at the end of verses and I'll look them up. If still in more need, I ask my pastor. If it's a subject I want to know more on he usually has a book or can recommend one

 Rightly Dividing? Is there a right answer? In the Bible?

 I try to go by the reading schedule the pastor puts in the bulletin each week. Or referencing verses in books I'm reading. 

Miss Daisy you are correct the AV Bible is already interpreted for us.  We need only to bring out the correct application for us. 

[AVBibleBeliever]

I think you're confusing interpretation with translation. Understanding is interpretation. They're rougly (though not exactly) synonymous. You can't read anything in any language without interpreting its meaning to understand it.

One must interpret to make a translation, a translation is an correct interpretation from one language to another. 

 

If my Russian interpreter interprets a Russian law incorrectly into English and I end up breaking that law inadvertently because of that interpretation I am the one who goes to Jail, not the interpreter. 

 

Same with the Bible if it is wrongly interpreted how am I to rightly interpret it if I don't have the original documents to check the translation too?  Especially when we do not have a complete original or even a complete copy of the original.

 

So the question is do you believe the AV Bible is correctly interpreted into English?

[Genevanpreacher]

It is also something you possess now a right thinking and attitude not just the word of God.  Be careful of limiting that mind to just God's written word, of which that many men change at a whim and say it is wrongly translated or a better translated would be by going to the Greek. 

 

How could the Bible by itself be the mind in which Paul talked about when it was not even completed yet at that historical moment?

 

No there is a mind set you have now you did not have before it is part f the divine nature you already possess.

 

I disagree. God had Moses write the beginning of scripture. God had men write his words for centuries. Jesus Christ, being God in human form, was there because he is God, and was the author of his word. So, yes there was the mind of Christ before Christ was in a physical body. The scriptures are not the whole mind of Christ anyway, we would not be able to carry it around, it would be limitless. They are the amount of his mind that he wants us to have for this life and the next. And the Holy Spirit is it's guide, not a 'different' messenger'. He would only speak what God has already said.

[TheSword]

You are defining second inspiration to fit your meaning but it is clear that in both instances the originals were lost and God himself guided the prophet to rewrite them and add even more to them.

 

I'm not really defining anything. You're trying to compare two completely different events and say they are the same to fit an arbitrary position. It doesn't really matter to me what you want to call either of them, but there are critical differences between what you're talking about happening in the Old Testament in which inspiration was given a second time to the same prophet because what he wrote the first time was lost (let's call that "second inspiration") and the entirety of the Old and New Testaments being lost over hundreds of years and a large group of people given inspiration to fill the gaps and correct what they had (we'll call that "secondary inspiration"). That why I say it's an apples to oranges comparison. There's no evidence to support the latter.

 

 

One must interpret to make a translation, a translation is an correct interpretation from one language to another. 

 

If my Russian interpreter interprets a Russian law incorrectly into English and I end up breaking that law inadvertently because of that interpretation I am the one who goes to Jail, not the interpreter. 

 

Same with the Bible if it is wrongly interpreted how am I to rightly interpret it if I don't have the original documents to check the translation too?  Especially when we do not have a complete original or even a complete copy of the original.

 

So the question is do you believe the AV Bible is correctly interpreted into English?

 

You're defining interpret to fit your meaning. Translation is interpreting the meaning of something in one language and expressing it another. Interpretation does not necessitate two different languages.  A judge interprets the law and applies it to a situation. The Supreme Court interprets the Constitution and applies it to a law or situation. That's all in English and those are just two examples I could come up with off the top of my head.

 

In answer to your last question, I believe the KJB is correctly translated in to English. In order to understand what it says, every reader must interpret the meaning. It's the way communication works.

[prophet1]

I'm not sure why the present tense state-of-being verb : "is", isn't enough for us to understand that "my words are spirit".

"Inspiritation" means : "breathed in"... "of God" tells us who it is who is breathed in...the Spirit of God, who is the Word of God, who is the Father, who is the Bible.

God doesn't breathe air, His Breath is Himself. It is extremely simple, yet seems so complicated.

God's breath is not composed of nitrogen and carbon dioxide, it is composed of Holy Spirit.

All scripture is given by inspiration of God.

It IS, present tense, God's Breath, or Spirit.
If it is scripture, it is God.
No need of "double" anything, God isn't "double god", He is perfect already.

Double inspiration theory comes from a blindness to common sense, brought about by the stumbling block of Dispensational Study.

Back up from the trees, see the forest...

Jn 3:34
34 For he whom God hath sent speaketh the words of God:for God giveth not the Spirit by measure unto him.

Jn 6:63
63 It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing:the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life.

2Ti 3:16
16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:


Anishinaabe

[AVBibleBeliever]

So no one has any ways of rightly dividing other that ASOD.

 

Well thanks guys.

[TheSword]

So no one has any ways of rightly dividing other that ASOD.

 

Well thanks guys.

 

 

I gave a detailed explanation of my way, as did a couple others, on how I rightly divide. Is it just that you didn't like those answers? If you had asked how I understand the dispensations I would have given you a detailed explanation similar to ASOD. I'm sorry that we disagree on what 2 Tim 2:15 means.

[Genevanpreacher]

So no one has any ways of rightly dividing other that ASOD.

 

Well thanks guys.

 

Hey? did you know there is a verse that says Judas went out and hanged himself?

Did you also know, that there is a verse that says to go and do thou likewise?

In rightly dividing those verses we know by God's wisdom, his words, that we should not!

It takes the knowledge of knowing the word of the Lord, (that's spelled b-i-b-l-e, in case you couldn't 'rightly divide' that definition) and that is how we do it.

[AVBibleBeliever]

Hey? did you know there is a verse that says Judas went out and hanged himself?

Did you also know, that there is a verse that says to go and do thou likewise?

In rightly dividing those verses we know by God's wisdom, his words, that we should not!

It takes the knowledge of knowing the word of the Lord, (that's spelled b-i-b-l-e, in case you couldn't 'rightly divide' that definition) and that is how we do it.

That is an old example knew that as a baby Christian 20 plus years ago.

[AVBibleBeliever]

Sorry I still am having prOBlems accessing OB.

 

I saw one guy divides the books of Paul's into two groups (whether this is right division or not is yet to be seen) but he divides them into the books where Paul went to the Jews first and said upon one such visit in Acts 13 said, It was necessary that the word of God should first have been spoken to you: but seeing ye put it from you, and judge yourselves unworthy of everlasting life, lo, we turn to the Gentiles. and went only to the Gentiles (Jew and Gentile alike and no difference).  But he still went to the synagogues and preached to both Jews and Greeks after that, so it is hard to tell.

 

He uses the book of Acts to help him divide the church books, the first  group is Romans, Corinthians, and Galatians; the second group is Ephesians, Philippians, Colossians, Thessalonians.

 

I am not sure if that is necessary I am still studying that out to see if that is a legitimate division.

[prophet1]

Sorry I still am having prOBlems accessing OB.

I saw one guy divides the books of Paul's into two groups (whether this is right division or not is yet to be seen) but he divides them into the books where Paul went to the Jews first and said upon one such visit in Acts 13 said, It was necessary that the word of God should first have been spoken to you: but seeing ye put it from you, and judge yourselves unworthy of everlasting life, lo, we turn to the Gentiles. and went only to the Gentiles (Jew and Gentile alike and no difference). But he still went to the synagogues and preached to both Jews and Greeks after that, so it is hard to tell.

He uses the book of Acts to help him divide the church books, the first group is Romans, Corinthians, and Galatians; the second group is Ephesians, Philippians, Colossians, Thessalonians.

I am not sure if that is necessary I am still studying that out to see if that is a legitimate division.

You will be led away of this doctrine, as well.
Satan has you hooked.
You will have to eventually decide that certain Epistles must have been to the Jews as well, to make them fit into your preconceived man-made dispensational idea of dividing the Scripture.

You don't have to swallow this camel.
You could rest in this:
Rom 1:16
16 For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ:for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek.

Rom 2:9
9 Tribulation and anguish, upon every soul of man that doeth evil, of the Jew first, and also of the Gentile;

Rom 2:28-29
28 For he is not a Jew, which is one outwardly; neither is that circumcision, which is outward in the flesh:
29 But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God.

Rom 10:12
12 For there is no difference between the Jew and the Greek:for the same Lord over all is rich unto all that call upon him.

Gal 3:28-29
28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female:for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.
29 And if ye be Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise.

Col 3:11
11 Where there is neither Greek nor Jew, circumcision nor uncircumcision, Barbarian, Scythian, bond nor free:but Christ is all, and in all.


You could be delivered from this.

If you will rest in the Scriptures, and not read the words of they who wrest the Scriptures.

Anishinaabe

[Genevanpreacher]

That is an old example knew that as a baby Christian 20 plus years ago.

 

Thats funny, me too.

Thought you could relate.

 

Know someone named Terrence McClean?

 

I used to listen to him alot after I got saved. He taught me bunches about the differences between the KJV and the perversions. And NOTHING about the Geneva Bible, funny how that never got mentioned by men of God I grew up knowing. They will talk about Tyndale, Coverdale, Rogers and even Wycliffe, but almost never the 1560 Geneva Bible.

[AVBibleBeliever]

You will be led away of this doctrine, as well.
Satan has you hooked.
You will have to eventually decide that certain Epistles must have been to the Jews as well, to make them fit into your preconceived man-made dispensational idea of dividing the Scripture.

You don't have to swallow this camel.
You could rest in this:
Rom 1:16
16 For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ:for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek.

Rom 2:9
9 Tribulation and anguish, upon every soul of man that doeth evil, of the Jew first, and also of the Gentile;

Rom 2:28-29
28 For he is not a Jew, which is one outwardly; neither is that circumcision, which is outward in the flesh:
29 But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God.

Rom 10:12
12 For there is no difference between the Jew and the Greek:for the same Lord over all is rich unto all that call upon him.

Gal 3:28-29
28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female:for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.
29 And if ye be Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise.

Col 3:11
11 Where there is neither Greek nor Jew, circumcision nor uncircumcision, Barbarian, Scythian, bond nor free:but Christ is all, and in all.


You could be delivered from this.

If you will rest in the Scriptures, and not read the words of they who wrest the Scriptures.

Anishinaabe

I am not led away by nothing.  I OBserve and check all things by the word of god like any good Berean

 

This is a thread on how do you, I  or anyone rightly divide.

 

I have made no divisions I simple shared how another person has divided the word.

 

Be sure I rest in the word.