KJV Translation variance Gen 2:2 Heb 4:10

[Guest Guest]

It is difficult for me to adhere to the KJVO doctrine when I see variances in the text the translators produced. For example

Gen 2:2 And on the seventh day God ended his work which he had made; and he RESTED on the seventh day from all his work which he had made.

and then in

Heb 4:10 For he that is entered into his rest, he also hath CEASED from his own works, as God did from his.

In Genesis 2 we see a creator that has finished his magnifant work in creation and the KJVA say that God "RESTED" on the seventh day. Yet, In Hebrews we see the exact same time referenced and it referenced as He "CEASED" from own works.

Now I know that in english that RESTED and CEASED are not the same word nor do they carry the same meaning. The very fact that the two words exist speaks to their seperate meanings.

It is very difficult to use the word "rest" or "rested" without it carrying the connotation of the person "resting" needing rest. The word implies that one....every how slightly.... needs to stop because of some limitation no matter the form. Yet in Isaiah 40:28 we know God does not grow weary.

This is also witnessed in Hebrews chapter 4 when it talks about the rest of God. Man is in need of this rest and not God. In Hebrews rest in reckoned to man and cease is reckoned to God in His actions in Hebrews 4:10

Shouldn't Genesis 2:2 say

Gen 2:2 And on the seventh day God ended his work which he had made; and he CEASED on the seventh day from all his work which he had made.

Why would

Gen 2:2 And on the seventh day God ended his work which he had made; and he RESTED on the seventh day from all his work which he had made.

be a better translation and why would the translators use different english words to speak of the same action God took on the seventh day?

[Bakershalfdozen]

When a lawyer "rests his case", he is ceasing arguments, not lying down from exhaustion. God ceased/rested on the 7th day from the work He did. Rest can mean cease, not just relax.

[Bakershalfdozen]

Also, the KJV translators didn't put one word in one place and just decide to use a different word in a different place. The King James Version is a formal translation which means it was translated word for word as much as possible from the documents available.

Since the O.T. was written in Hebrew and the N.T. in Greek then we can assume that the writer of Hebrews used a Greek word that meant the same thing as rested - just like "rest" in English can mean "cease".

[Guest Guest]

When a lawyer "rests his case"' date=' he is ceasing arguments, not lying down from exhaustion. God ceased/rested on the 7th day from the work He did. Rest can mean cease, not just relax.[/quote']

Hebrews 4:10 said he ceased and Gen 2:2 says he rested. The two words are not the same and just because a lawyer rests his case does not mean that it is in like manner that God rested the seventh day.

Does Gen 2:2 deal with a lawyer resting his case? I thought it was God resting from his labor.

the use of the word "rested" in the sentence is not the same. I don't see how you can say it is? Certainly God is not a man and certainly when a lawyer rests his case.. it might very well be from exhaustion. It does not necessarily mean that the case is over. Appeals. New evidence.. etc... The two are not the same.

On another point... Why did the translators choose to translate God's action as ceased in Hebrews 4:10 and "rested" in Gen 2:2?

Why the difference? Which one is correct or an accurate description. In all honesty I would have to say that ceased is the correct translation. If you use the word ceased it does carry with it the connotation of needing rest.

Do you not see a difference?

Why even have the word cease?

Cease and Rest are both old english. Why not just one?

[Guest Guest]

Also, the KJV translators didn't put one word in one place and just decide to use a different word in a different place. The King James Version is a formal translation which means it was translated word for word as much as possible from the documents available.

Since the O.T. was written in Hebrew and the N.T. in Greek then we can assume that the writer of Hebrews used a Greek word that meant the same thing as rested - just like "rest" in English can mean "cease".

I believe you are very much wrong. The KLV is not a word for word translation. It is not even close. I don't know why you would hold such a ideal.

Can mean? or does mean? Hence I used the word "variance". It variable. Yet they are not the same word. Cease can not carry the connotation of needing rest.

Can it?

[Bakershalfdozen]

Go look it up in a dictionary then.

[Guest Guest]

Go look it up in a dictionary then.

Are you frustrated? Have I asked something wrong?

I know the definition. I know they are different and not the same word nor do they carry the same meaning.

[HappyChristian]

It's funny, but when I rest, I cease from doing what I had been doing....

[Guest Guest]

It's funny' date=' but when I rest, I cease from doing what I had been doing....[/quote']

Is it possible you rest because your tired when you cease from doing what you have been doing?

It is not possible for God to do such.

When you ceased from what you where doing... does it mean you where resting? or just that you stopped?

Do you see any difference?

It still does not explain the variance in the translation for the same action. Gen 2:2 and Hebrews 4:10

How isn't it is a bad choice of words?

This is the very nature of proper translation.

[HappyChristian]

No, there are times when I "rest," not because I'm tired. I know that it isn't that God was tired. I also know the close relation between the words rest and cease. And have no problem understanding both verses.

[Guest Guest]

Oh you ceased?

There is a close relationship but they do not mean the same. Hence... the need for seperate words....

Tell me the difference... What is the difference.

You every heard the phrase... close.... but no cigar... or close only counts in horseshoes and hand granades?

Why did the translators use different words for God's actions? I know another english word that migth describe it.... inconsistant...

[HappyChristian]

You know, I wasn't there when they translated it, so I can't answer that - other than to way I believe that God guided them.

Inconsistent? If you want to think so, go ahead. As I said, I have no problem with the two words. I'm sorry that they are such a thorn in your side!

[Guest Guest]

You know, I wasn't there when they translated it, so I can't answer that - other than to way I believe that God guided them.

Inconsistent? If you want to think so, go ahead. As I said, I have no problem with the two words. I'm sorry that they are such a thorn in your side!

Not a thorn in my side... except when someone makes the translation to be a perfect example of the Perfect Godhead when it carries inconistancies. I am certain God would have never said that He rested in Gen 2:2 and then that He ceased in Hebrews 4:10.

because He is well aware of the differences in saying such....

Don't you think He knows better?

If it wasn't Him... then who was it?

[Annie]

It is difficult for me to adhere to the KJVO doctrine when I see variances in the text the translators produced. For example



and then in



In Genesis 2 we see a creator that has finished his magnifant work in creation and the KJVA say that God "RESTED" on the seventh day. Yet, In Hebrews we see the exact same time referenced and it referenced as He "CEASED" from own works.

Now I know that in english that RESTED and CEASED are not the same word nor do they carry the same meaning. The very fact that the two words exist speaks to their seperate meanings.

It is very difficult to use the word "rest" or "rested" without it carrying the connotation of the person "resting" needing rest. The word implies that one....every how slightly.... needs to stop because of some limitation no matter the form. Yet in Isaiah 40:28 we know God does not grow weary.

This is also witnessed in Hebrews chapter 4 when it talks about the rest of God. Man is in need of this rest and not God. In Hebrews rest in reckoned to man and cease is reckoned to God in His actions in Hebrews 4:10

Shouldn't Genesis 2:2 say



Why would



be a better translation and why would the translators use different english words to speak of the same action God took on the seventh day?

lltj, as most people on here know, I am not KJVO by any stretch of the imagination. I agree that there are inconsistencies in the KJV. But I don't think this is one of them. I can understand how "rested" and "ceased" can refer to the same thing. God did cease from his labor on the seventh day, yes? He also rested, yes? He stopped working. He rested. Instead of working (like He had on the previous six days), He rested.

[Guest Guest]

lltj, as most people on here know, I am not KJVO by any stretch of the imagination. I agree that there are inconsistencies in the KJV. But I don't think this is one of them. I can understand how "rested" and "ceased" can refer to the same thing. God did cease from his labor on the seventh day, yes? He also rested, yes? He stopped working. He rested. Instead of working (like He had on the previous six days), He rested.

He stopped working? nonsense. He has never stopped working.

What do you think would happen if God stopped working?

The most accurate and meaningful translation is that.....He ceased from his labor

Many modern translations say just that.

Are you saying that rest and ceased are the same word and carry the same meaning?