KJV'S John 3:16's "begotten"

[Madeline]

First, I'd like to state that I DO NOT want this question to be perceived as an attack on the KJV. I'm looking for an answer to a question which came as a result of a debate I had yesterday with a JW. The question is?.

I am curious as to why the KJV translates mono-genes as "only begotten" in John 3:16? This is what gave rise to the JW argument that Jesus was somehow given birth to. This is what the English definition (begotten) most certainly conveys.

I've done some research on the web concerning the original greek word/s and came up with this explanation.

The difference between these comes from a correctly translated Greek root for the second part of the word. Instead of mono-gennao the original root of the second part was genos, not gennao.
Remember Biology class were you had to memorize ?kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species? in order to group like kinds of creatures? Genos means ?of the same kind? and then when combined with a prefix of mono the word ?mono-genos? means ?of a unique class or kind?. It is that uniqueness of Jesus, His person hood in the Trinity, that is of the utmost importance.
So when picking out verses to memorize or have your kids to memorize remember, translation matters. Read a couple good commentaries and see if one translation captures the original intent in our language better than another. This is also another reminder that we can?t get caught up into KJV?onlyism or any other translation?ism for that matter. But rather we should study the scriptures diligently.

Thanks in advance!

Love,
Madeline

[Guest Guest]

"Begotten" does not always mean literal, physical, birth.

The dictionary definition number two is:

"2 : to produce especially as an effect or outgrowth"


For example, as Christians scripture also says we are "begotten" of God, but that is spiritual not physical. In like manner, Christ is of the father. He wasn't physically born of the father, but he is the perfect image of the invisible God, and in that sense he is an "outgrowth" of the father. He said in the scriptures that he did nothing of himself, but that the father did the works, that he always did those things that please him, and that he never sought his own will but the fathers. It all has to do with the trinity, the three in one.

[Madeline]

"Begotten" does not always mean literal, physical, birth.

The dictionary definition number two is:

"2 : to produce especially as an effect or outgrowth"


For example, as Christians scripture also says we are "begotten" of God, but that is spiritual not physical. In like manner, Christ is of the father.

Thanks for replying, but I don't see how the word begotten in John 3:16 is comparable to how the context of begotten is used of "us"....since Christ is the ONLY begotten Son of God.

John 3:16 - For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.

Thanks in advance!

Love,
Madeline

[Calvary]

Hi Madeline, long time no read.

Only Begotten is not only a proof of the deity of the Lord Jesus, but it is a positional statement.

See

Col 1:16 For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him:
Col 1:17 And he is before all things, and by him all things consist.
Col 1:18 And he is the head of the body, the church: who is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead; that in all things he might have the preeminence.

There is a clear exaltation presented here, it's expressed purpose is to give Jesus the preeminence.


Act 26:23 That Christ should suffer, and that he should be the first that should rise from the dead, and should shew light unto the people, and to the Gentiles.

Why? To shew light unto the people (Israel) and the Gentiles.

Act 13:33 God hath fulfilled the same unto us their children, in that he hath raised up Jesus again; as it is also written in the second psalm, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee.

What day was Christ "begotten"? Not in eternity past as Calvin taught, but at His resurrection which is clear from the context.

This is a position that the Lord occupies, an order given to Him by right of the resurrection from the dead. It is not speaking of any birth, in our sense of being born, the which we know was also supernatural and of a divine conception, which make birth unique as well.

One could use David's exaltation as a nice example of what we are talking about.


Psa 89:27 Also I will make him my firstborn, higher than the kings of the earth.


Here the Lord God is speaking of what he will do for David, where he will place him in rank, office and position. We all know that David was not the first born, yet the first born intimates privilege, rank and inheritance, all which the term Only-Begotten entails.

Look at this:

Rom 1:3 Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh;
Rom 1:4 And declared to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by the resurrection from the dead:

Again, Christ was "made" to be something by right of rising from the dead.

Unto us a child is BORN, unto us a SON is given. The Only begotten Son of God. His humanity and deity in one verse. Clear as day.

Jacob and Esau? Birth rights reversed. Who received the inheritance? Rebekah and Leah? laban cheated Jacob to keep the "birth rights" in order (Gen 29)

See Jeremiah 31:9

Hope this helps.

God bless,

Calvary

[Guest Guest]

Thanks for replying, but I don't see how the word begotten in John 3:16 is comparable to how the context of begotten is used of "us"....since Christ is the ONLY begotten Son of God.

John 3:16 - For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.

Thanks in advance!

Love,
Madeline

Well, I believe the reason it is comparable is because we are only "begotten" of God through Christ. Without his death none of us could be sons of God, yet through Christs death, anyone who will repent and believe can be saved. So, in one sense, Christ is indeed the only "outgrowth" of God, yet through Christ, the Christian is begotten of God as well. The father is only able to see us as his children because of the work of Christ.


"John 1:12 But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his name:"

"Hebrews 2:10 For it became him, for whom are all things, and by whom are all things, in bringing many sons unto glory, to make the captain of their salvation perfect through sufferings."

It is clear to me but I am not sure how good of a job I am doing explaining it. :bonK:

[kevinmiller]

Where have you been Madeline?? :wave:

[Madeline]

Hi Kevin. I hope you have a blessed Thanksgiving! :smile

[kevinmiller]

Thanks, though I'm gonna be all alone this year. :sad
I'm going to get together with a friend for a Thanksgiving meal on Saturday, though.

[John the Baptist]

First, I'd like to state that I DO NOT want this question to be perceived as an attack on the KJV. I'm looking for an answer to a question which came as a result of a debate I had yesterday with a JW. The question is?.

I am curious as to why the KJV translates mono-genes as "only begotten" in John 3:16? This is what gave rise to the JW argument that Jesus was somehow given birth to. This is what the English definition (begotten) most certainly conveys.

I've done some research on the web concerning the original greek word/s and came up with this explanation.



Thanks in advance!

Love,
Madeline

gennao come from genna which is poetic for genos. gennao means to "begat" genos offspring, or those descent from a particular people. But also it has the meaning of the aggregate of many individuals of the same nature kind and sort. In John 3:16 only Begotten, monogene means denote Christ as the only Son of God, not have brothers or sisters. Robertson says it means here only born Robertson says "it refers to the eternal relationship of the logos rather than the incarnation." He is the unique only Son who is the same nature and kind of the Father. He is the Son in the way no person could be a son of God. In the earlier manuscripts John 3:18 says "Only Begotten God".Clearly He eternal. `John 1:1 "In the beginning was(continually existing) the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."