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Posted

I looked into this and found out that in the oldest documents we have it actually doesn't say brother. It was an inconsistancy that confused many greek theologians. And so when the MVs translated from the texts they didn't alter it as they wanted to preserve his word as acuratly as possible. Ironic huh. I couldn't work out at which point someone corrected the inconsistansy. most probally the latin vulgate but don't hold me to that. Luckily in this case it is just minor and doesn't radically alter peoples doctrine

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Posted
...still trying to find a jot or tittle in the KJV... :huh:

:hide


Yes, I see you've been eating up Gary Hudson's garbage there Kubel. A jot and a tittle doesn't inclusively have to apply to only the Greek or Hebrew language. Get an ENGLISH dictionary and read that they can be a "little bit" or "a small point or sign" in ANY language. You are going on the ASSUMPTION that Christ was referring only to the Greek or Hebrew here. So you see, you approach the passage as somebody who has been already brainwashed by unsaved liberal college professors. So remember there my bible correcting friend, to always "dot your i's and cross your t's" before saying something.

Wil

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