KJV mistranslates "nephilim" as "giants"?

[JohnnyGotham]

http://www.raidersnewsnetwork.com/edito ... ature=5413

Why does the KJV translate the Hebrew "nephilim" as "giants". According to the above column, it's because the translators didn't know any better, or lacked the appropriate scholarship because of the time. Of course I don't buy any of it, but I am curious as to why the KJV uses the translation it does.

[Jerry]

Yowza! That guy that wrote that article sure has some WACCCKKKKYYY ideas! The giants were bungling men and that was how David could defeat Goliath and how the Israelites could conquer the Philistines cities - yeah right. How about God gave them the victory. Seems like this man does not accept his Bible for what it says.

And, somehow the 47 translators who knew more languages that you or I ever dreamed of, somehow they couldn't figure out one Hebrew word - yet this wacky author has it all figured out! :loco

The word Nephilim does mean "fallen" - but it does not have to automatically refer to fallen angels. All of mankind has fallen. The context of Genesis 6 is regarding those believers who lost their separation and intermarried with the lost.

I also notice that the author insists that the Hebrew word "gibbor" is the one that is supposed to mean giants. However, gibbor means mighty - which is used in the phrase mighty men. It is a reference to a warrior or a tyrant, a champion. The Strong's definition is "intensive from the same as 1397; powerful; by implication, warrior, tyrant:-- champion, chief, X excel, giant, man, mighty (man, one), strong (man), valiant man." Obviously, the range of meaning also includes giant - but it is not limited to that.

[Guest Guest]

http://www.raidersnewsnetwork.com/edito ... ature=5413

Why does the KJV translate the Hebrew "nephilim" as "giants". According to the above column, it's because the translators didn't know any better, or lacked the appropriate scholarship because of the time. Of course I don't buy any of it, but I am curious as to why the KJV uses the translation it does.

Mmmm... Maybe because God wanted them to. Must there always be a reason. Maybe we should trust that God got to us in the English what he wanted us to have. "All scripture is given by inspiration of God..." Sometimes you just have to have faith in God that he knows what he's doing.

Wil

[heartstrings]

Yowza! That guy that wrote that article sure has some WACCCKKKKYYY ideas! The giants were bungling men and that was how David could defeat Goliath and how the Israelites could conquer the Philistines cities - yeah right. How about God gave them the victory. Seems like this man does not accept his Bible for what it says.

And, somehow the 47 translators who knew more languages that you or I ever dreamed of, somehow they couldn't figure out one Hebrew word - yet this wacky author has it all figured out! :loco

The word Nephilim does mean "fallen" - but it does not have to automatically refer to fallen angels. All of mankind has fallen. The context of Genesis 6 is regarding those believers who lost their separation and intermarried with the lost.

I also notice that the author insists that the Hebrew word "gibbor" is the one that is supposed to mean giants. However, gibbor means mighty - which is used in the phrase mighty men. It is a reference to a warrior or a tyrant, a champion. The Strong's definition is "intensive from the same as 1397; powerful; by implication, warrior, tyrant:-- champion, chief, X excel, giant, man, mighty (man, one), strong (man), valiant man." Obviously, the range of meaning also includes giant - but it is not limited to that.

:thumb

[Anon]

My husband recently studied this out and believes that the "Sons of God" were the "angels who kept not their first estate" in Jude.

One good proof of this is having to do with the fact there was only one pure line to Christ, and no giants were formed out of that line. Although people in the line did sin, they didn't completely corrupt the line as would have happened in Genesis.

Another is that "Sons of God" is never used in the OT referring to saved individuals except one vague time. All the other times it is referring to angelic beings. The contrast is clear...sons of God vs daughters of men. It wasn't sons of good men vs daughters of wicked men.

The Bible is clear there are different "ranks" or types of demons/spirits and we are leaning towards the fact that there are demons who fell with Satan, and also fallen angels who left to intermarry with humans, and those are the ones chained up currently and not allowed to roam the earth, as Satan and his demons are still allowed to do.

[Bakershalfdozen]

We have a thread on this that lasted from December 15, 2006 - May 21, 2007 (only 2 weeks ago).


viewtopic.php?f=4&t=15361&st=0&sk=t&sd=a&hilit=nephilim

[Anon]

Oh sorry.

[Bakershalfdozen]

Haha, it is your thread, Suzy! :lol:

[Anon]

*shrugs* I'm too tired and pg to search for an old thread when one was right here.

:bored:

[heartstrings]

A former pastor used to teach that the book of Jude was another proof of "angels cohabiting with women".
First of all, the term he always used...."cohabiting".....is not what the Bible says. It says "they took them wives, all of which they chose.....". In order to get a wife, you gotta marry. And a "wife" is a longterm friend and companion, not a "one night stand", or "shacking" which "cohabiting" implies.

The Book of Jude makes three (3) comparisons:
Jude1:8 Likewise also these filthy dreamers defile the flesh, despise dominion, and speak evil of dignities.

The comparisons are:
1. Who "defiled the flesh"? Sodom and Gommorah and "these filthy dreamers"
2. Who "despised dominion"? The angels who "kept not their first estate"....and "these filthy dreamers"
3. Who "speaks evil of dignities"? Even though Michael the Archangel would not even accuse Satan, the children of Israel spoke against Moses. And the "filthy dreamers" also "speak evil of dignities".

Where some get it wrong is when they try to say that the "angels which kept not their first estate"....'defiled the flesh". But that is not what the Bible says. They have a preconceived belief about it and try to read something into it that is not there. Read it carefully, the angels "despised dominion".

I believe that "sons of God"....all through the bible...are beleivers in the true and living God.
And angels are angels and giants are giants.

[Jerry]

My purpose was not to revisit that other topic - just to point out that the author of the article was out to lunch on his theories - and nephilim didn't necessarily refer to fallen angels (and the other junk he was saying).

[IM4given]

A former pastor used to teach that the book of Jude was another proof of "angels cohabiting with women".
First of all, the term he always used...."cohabiting".....is not what the Bible says. It says "they took them wives, all of which they chose.....". In order to get a wife, you gotta marry. And a "wife" is a longterm friend and companion, not a "one night stand", or "shacking" which "cohabiting" implies.

The Book of Jude makes three (3) comparisons:
Jude1:8 Likewise also these filthy dreamers defile the flesh, despise dominion, and speak evil of dignities.

The comparisons are:
1. Who "defiled the flesh"? Sodom and Gommorah and "these filthy dreamers"
2. Who "despised dominion"? The angels who "kept not their first estate"....and "these filthy dreamers"
3. Who "speaks evil of dignities"? Even though Michael the Archangel would not even accuse Satan, the children of Israel spoke against Moses. And the "filthy dreamers" also "speak evil of dignities".

Where some get it wrong is when they try to say that the "angels which kept not their first estate"....'defiled the flesh". But that is not what the Bible says. They have a preconceived belief about it and try to read something into it that is not there. Read it carefully, the angels "despised dominion".

I believe that "sons of God"....all through the bible...are beleivers in the true and living God.
And angels are angels and giants are giants.

:thumb :amen: :round: Whee - here we go again!!!

[JohnnyGotham]

So why did the translators pick "giants" to use in place of "nephilim"?

[suitman]

http://www.raidersnewsnetwork.com/edito ... ature=5413

Why does the KJV translate the Hebrew "nephilim" as "giants". According to the above column, it's because the translators didn't know any better, or lacked the appropriate scholarship because of the time. Of course I don't buy any of it, but I am curious as to why the KJV uses the translation it does.

No translation is 100% accurate which is why we I believe it helps to compare versions while reading. for while I do agree that the KJV is almost definatly the most accurate it is still a translation. only the greek and hebrew is 100% pure of error
In the matter at hand I do not have a KJV myself and so do not know exactly but most translations do this cause people do not know the facts about the nephilim and so they say they were giants (because the nephilim were giant).

I am learning greek so I can read the NT in that (not that it will help in this case). and I do realise this is a KJB only site but I ask that people show me grace for I do not understand the language used and so do not use it myself.

god bless
-daniel-

[Kubel]

For centuries, early Jews and Christians believed the Nephilim were the result of crossbreeding angels and mankind. Only recently have people rejected that idea as being too bizarre to believe, and took the "giant" interpretation instead.

But to the KJVs defense, Nephilim, in the two instances they are mentioned (Genesis and Numbers, although Numbers is a false report), are described as giants (either physically and/or intellectually). The best translation for Nephilim is "giants". The only other option is a transliteration (which I would prefer), which is what most translations do.

I am learning greek so I can read that.

Nephilim isn't Greek, it's Hebrew.

If it were Greek, it would probably be Titans or something.