Members Jerry Posted June 16, 2007 Members Share Posted June 16, 2007 In 1611, the KJV was a new translation. And people were, just as they are today, against that new Bible. The Catholic church was against the translation of the KJV, the common people were not.And it took a hundred years or more for the KJV to become the new standard translation among the English people. Yeah, right... Is that why Matthew Henry 50 or so years later used that as his translation for his commentary? Is that why it became the people's favourite over the Geneva Bible within a generation? Go ahead and continue to present skewed facts. The reason people here are against the MVs is not because they are NEW, but because they are CORRUPT. Let's not confuse the issue here. The only people opposing the KJV in its day were those who were against ANY Bible in the common language of the people (Ie. the Roman Catholic church). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members Will Posted June 16, 2007 Members Share Posted June 16, 2007 I'm not presenting skewed facts. The Geneva Bible did not begin to lose in popularity to the KJV until the Monarchy of England banned it from being printed on English soil. And even then, it was very popular among English speaking people, however popularity was waning. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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