Members JJJ4given Posted May 27, 2007 Members Share Posted May 27, 2007 I think we should move on from this subject. I don't have problems with rules but the NIV is none of the above and posting in a another language wouldn't help peoples understanding on what I was stating. KIV uses outdated terms so its not my preferred translation. Randy The issue with the MVs is the corrupt manuscripts from which they came. Also, there are certain language advantages with Elizabethan English vs. modern English such as distinguishing between 2nd pp and 2nd ps(i.e. "ye" vs. "you"). Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members Jerry Posted May 27, 2007 Members Share Posted May 27, 2007 there are certain language advantages with Elizabethan English vs. modern English such as distinguishing between 2nd pp and 2nd ps(i.e. "ye" vs. "you"). :puzzled: Plural (ie. when speaking to more than 1 person) is ye, you, yours, etc. in the KJV; and singular is thee, thy, thine, etc. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members JJJ4given Posted May 27, 2007 Members Share Posted May 27, 2007 Not to derail the topic, but how many Simon's were there? Luke 22:31 And the Lord said, Simon, Simon, behold, Satan hath desired to have you, that he may sift you as wheat: Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members Will Posted May 27, 2007 Members Share Posted May 27, 2007 Not to derail the topic, but how many Simon's were there? Luke 22:31 And the Lord said, Simon, Simon, behold, Satan hath desired to have you, that he may sift you as wheat: How does that even make sense in this conversation? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members JJJ4given Posted May 27, 2007 Members Share Posted May 27, 2007 How does that even make sense in this conversation? It was in response to what Jerry said. However, as I am examining it further I think in most cases his statement is correct. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members Jerry Posted May 27, 2007 Members Share Posted May 27, 2007 My statement is correct in all cases - it is how the 2 person is consistently translated throughout the whole Word of God. Many times the writer/speaker will change between addressing one person or the crowd. Like Moses, God often speaks to him, and then switches to addressing the whole congregation. The passage you mentioned is quite simple: Luke 22:31-32 And the Lord said, Simon, Simon, behold, Satan hath desired to have you (all twelve), that he may sift you (all twelve) as wheat: But I have prayed for thee (Peter), that thy faith fail not: and when thou art converted, strengthen thy brethren. Jesus is speaking TO Peter, but referring to all of the Apostles. Satan desired to sift all twelve. Then Jesus states to Peter that He was specifically praying for him. We see the same kind of thing here: John 3:7 Marvel not that I said unto thee (Nocodemus), Ye (everyone) must be born again. Jesus is talking specifically with Nicodemus, but making a statement intended for everyone. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members Calvary Posted May 27, 2007 Members Share Posted May 27, 2007 Amen Jerry! Couldn't have got that from a NIV! I am so glad for the "archaic" pronouns in my KJB. All confusion is cleared up quickly with the perfect and error free Bible, the KJB. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members RandyW Posted May 28, 2007 Members Share Posted May 28, 2007 All we ask is that you respect our position, you do not have to agree with it, but we do ask that you respect it. Simple as that. So when a question is posted like this"What is wrong with the King James Preferred position on Bible translations?" You just want people to ignore their conscious and remain silent? I do respect your positions, but it doesn't seem to work both ways. Randy Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members Jerry Posted May 28, 2007 Members Share Posted May 28, 2007 Randy, did you come here to fellowship, or just to go on and on about our standards, which you are bucking? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Administrators Pastor Matt Posted May 28, 2007 Administrators Share Posted May 28, 2007 So when a question is posted like this"What is wrong with the King James Preferred position on Bible translations?" You just want people to ignore their conscious and remain silent? I do respect your positions, but it doesn't seem to work both ways. Randy If you do not want fellowship then this is not the place for you. We are here for fellowship, not to knock each other down. You need to understand that their is folks out there that believe different than you, and you need to respect those decisions from others. Not agree with them, but respect them. We plenty of folks here that are not KJV folks that respect our beliefs, all we ask for is the same. No sense in leaving this open. We would go in circles all day. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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