Rightly Divide & Study

[Bakershalfdozen]

I'm not trying to come across as peevish here but this has been bugging me for a long time. I fully realize that this is a "can of worms" for some folks and I fully realize that because of some approaches to Bible study, this can be volatile. It doesn't have to be and I hope this thread remains civil. I know some of you think Greek study is worthless but here goes anyway:

The phrase "rightly dividing" in II Timothy 2:15 means to correctly expound. It does not mean to chop up into pieces. It is different from the word used in Heb. 4 {the dividing asunder of soul and spirit} which means to separate. Those are different yet from the word used in Luke 15 {Father, give me the portion of goods that falleth to me. And he divided unto them his living.} ...which means to distribute. All of those are the same word or the same root and yet they mean something different.

The point of this is to say that to use the phrase "rightly dividing" in reference to dispensations, what applies to me and what doesn't is inaccurate.

Furthermore, all N.T. epistles were written to churches, whether comprised of Jews, Gentiles or both. Most of the early churches were mainly Jews anyway. Paul was the apostle - the one sent - to the Gentiles. Peter was the apostle - the one sent - to the Jews. That doesn't mean their teachings were different. In fact, they both reference each other in their writings. Additionally, God says that in the N.T. church age, there is no "Jew" or "Gentile"; they are all part of the Body.


Lastly, "study" - The word "study" in both of the following verses...

1 Thessalonians 4:11 And that ye study to be quiet, and to do your own business, and to work with your own hands, as we commanded you;
2 Timothy 2:15 Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.

does not mean open a book although it can certainly include that! They are two different Greek words but mean nearly the same thing. It means to be diligent, endeavor, labor. If you substitute the word "endeavor" for study in both verses, you will see the idea. However, if you put the idea of book study or Bible study in I Thess. 4:11, it won't make much sense.


Ok, got that off my chest. I'm finished here. :wave:

[dwayner79]

:goodpost:

[Guest Guest]

I'm one of the people that believe we don't need the Greek because we have a perfect Bible in English. Therefore, I take the Bible at face value that when it says to rightly "divide" that it truly does mean to divide.

God has put many divisions in Scripture. He made one of them easy for us: Old Testament and New Testament. Others, like dispensations, not so easy to understand all the time unless we study.

On the word study...we can be diligent without studying. The new versions replace the word "study" with "be diligent". They mean two different things.

I do understand where you are coming from Bakershalfdozen, I used to believe that way, but the Lord has shown me different and I'm so glad He has. I just don't see why God would give us a perfect Bible in English and then want us to go back to a dead language because we don't like what it says in our own language. God blessed us with an English Bible. Anyhow, that is my stand on it but since I am not going to change anybody's mind, nor is it my place to change anybody's mind, I thought I'd weigh in on the "other side" but hopefully not be argumentative.

[hspeer]

I just don't see why God would give us a perfect Bible in English and then want us to go back to a dead language because we don't like what it says in our own language

The preachers and teachers at our church who use the Greek as reference for something they are preaching are only using it to show the strength of what the English language is saying. My Sunday school teacher does this and it has been a great help in understanding Scripture, (not that it can't be understood without the Greek).

Anyone who doesn't like what the English KJV says and tries to go to the Greek to change the meaning will find a hard time of it since the KJV was so perfectly translated.

[dwayner79]

... I used to believe that way' date=' but the Lord has shown me different and I'm so glad He has... [/quote'] Perhaps

[Marcus2Israel]

Anyone who doesn't like what the English KJV says and tries to go to the Greek to change the meaning will find a hard time of it since the KJV was so perfectly translated.

That was rather uncalled for. Ever think she might have actually been shown the truth by God?

[Guest Guest]

That was a great verse of Scripture Dwayne! The thing is for me I believed like Bakers until I started studying the Bible for myself instead of relying on what other people said about it. I was tossed to and fro when reading other peoples ideas, but when I read the Bible...those are GOD'S ideas.

[Guest Guest]

I appreciate the support Marcus. God does say in the Bible that all Scripture is profitable for doctrine, reproof, correction and instruction in righteousness (2 Timothy 3:16) and that includes that verse. Maybe God will use that verse to speak to someone today. Wouldn't that be a blessing?

[Bakershalfdozen]

I do understand where you are coming from Bakershalfdozen' date=' I used to believe that way, but the Lord has shown me different and I'm so glad He has. [/quote']


That's funny because I used to believe the way you do but when I started studying the Bible for myself, the Lord showed me differently and I'm so glad He has. :smile

The 2 Tim. passage was written to a pastor and has more to do with expositional preaching than dispensations.

BTW, no one I know goes to the Greek because "they don't like what the KJV says".

[Guest Guest]

The way our family sees it is that there is absolutely no need for "the Greek" whatsoever. God didn't preserve the Bible in Greek, He did it in English. Since it is perfect, we don't need "the Greek" to figure out what it means. It says what it means perfectly in perfect English. If the Bible says divide, it means divide.

[Marcus2Israel]

The way our family sees it is that there is absolutely no need for "the Greek" whatsoever. God didn't preserve the Bible in Greek' date=' He did it in English. Since it is perfect, we don't need "the Greek" to figure out what it means. It says what it means perfectly in perfect English. If the Bible says divide, it means divide.[/quote']

He didn't preserve it in Greek? I agree the English is equally good as the Greek but the Greek was the only thing around for years and if it wasnt preserved n the Greek God broke His promise to the people of that time.

[dwayner79]

Yes, I have, hence the perhaps. As Bakers said its amazing how many people have been shown by God so many different things.

MrsW seems to have changed a good bit. Either she is being revealed the truth (not likely from my POV, though I could be just as wrong) or she is following winds of doctrine. I am not her judge. God can let us know when we get to heaven who was right... I doubt we will care.

[Guest Guest]

MrsW seems to have changed a good bit. Either she is being revealed the truth (not likely from my POV, though I could be just as wrong) or she is following winds of doctrine. I am not her judge. God can let us know when we get to heaven who was right... I doubt we will care.

Yes praise the Lord He led my husband and I to an awesome church that teaches sound doctrine about one year ago. There have been so many changes since, including me getting saved for real. It's been such a blessing to us and I'm glad you recognized that there has been change Dwayne.

[HappyChristian]

I'm not trying to come across as peevish here but this has been bugging me for a long time. I fully realize that this is a "can of worms" for some folks and I fully realize that because of some approaches to Bible study, this can be volatile. It doesn't have to be and I hope this thread remains civil. I know some of you think Greek study is worthless but here goes anyway:

The phrase "rightly dividing" in II Timothy 2:15 means to correctly expound. It does not mean to chop up into pieces. It is different from the word used in Heb. 4 {the dividing asunder of soul and spirit} which means to separate. Those are different yet from the word used in Luke 15 {Father, give me the portion of goods that falleth to me. And he divided unto them his living.} ...which means to distribute. All of those are the same word or the same root and yet they mean something different.

The point of this is to say that to use the phrase "rightly dividing" in reference to dispensations, what applies to me and what doesn't is inaccurate.

Furthermore, all N.T. epistles were written to churches, whether comprised of Jews, Gentiles or both. Most of the early churches were mainly Jews anyway. Paul was the apostle - the one sent - to the Gentiles. Peter was the apostle - the one sent - to the Jews. That doesn't mean their teachings were different. In fact, they both reference each other in their writings. Additionally, God says that in the N.T. church age, there is no "Jew" or "Gentile"; they are all part of the Body.


Lastly, "study" - The word "study" in both of the following verses...

1 Thessalonians 4:11 And that ye study to be quiet, and to do your own business, and to work with your own hands, as we commanded you;
2 Timothy 2:15 Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.

does not mean open a book although it can certainly include that! They are two different Greek words but mean nearly the same thing. It means to be diligent, endeavor, labor. If you substitute the word "endeavor" for study in both verses, you will see the idea. However, if you put the idea of book study or Bible study in I Thess. 4:11, it won't make much sense.


Ok, got that off my chest. I'm finished here.

:thumb