Large Block Capital Letters in KJV

[Jerry]

3 hours ago, Bro. West said:

Do not forget the BOOK is called a HIS. Neither is there any creature that is not manifest in his sight: but all things [are] naked and opened unto the eyes of him with whom we have to do. Heb 4:13

Yowza - heresy much?

Hebrews 4:12-13 For the word of God is quick, and powerful, and sharper than any twoedged sword, piercing even to the dividing asunder of soul and spirit, and of the joints and marrow, and is a discerner of the thoughts and intents of the heart. Neither is there any creature that is not manifest in his sight: but all things are naked and opened unto the eyes of him with whom we have to do.

Verse 12 is talking about the written Word of God, verse 13 is talking about Jesus/God Himself, as the verse indicates and the whole context of the Bible itself teaches. Jesus, the Son of God and Son of man, is our judge. He will judge us by His Word.

Edited January 1, 2022 by Jerry

[Jim_Alaska]

2 hours ago, Bro. West said:

Nothing happens by chance when it come to the Book and I appreciate your research. These chapter and verse marking, which you call a tool. They surely were not given by the devil or groups that wanted to control the masses. To believe that God was not behind this is foolish. They have helped to memorize Writ and help preach the Gospel and bring the lost to a saving knowledge of the Saviour. I do not know if they were inspired or guide to do so. There is no reason not to retain them at all. The printing press was used to print Bibles, should we retain it as a means to publish his word or should we ban the press and go back to hand written works.

God's provenance shows up in both the markings and the press. 

  

Titus 3:9 (KJV) But avoid foolish questions, and genealogies, and contentions, and strivings about the law; for they are unprofitable and vain.

[Jerry]

6 minutes ago, Jim_Alaska said:

Titus 3:9 (KJV) But avoid foolish questions, and genealogies, and contentions, and strivings about the law; for they are unprofitable and vain.

You are right. Excellent counsel.

[Pastor Scott Markle]

20 hours ago, Bro. West said:

 Then how do you account for the arrangement of books in a premillennial order, the break in Isaiah 40:3 matching the 40th book Matthew with John the Baptist or Isaiah 66 matching the 66 book, Revelation.   How do you explain But the men of Sodom [were] wicked and sinners before the LORD exceedingly. Gen 13:13 which has 13 words and 39 letters 3x13. This is rebelling  against human nature and the first time 13 appears in Writ it has to do with rebelling (Gen.14.4) and that Judas Iscariot has 13 letters and he rebelled against Jesus Christ. And Jesus gave Judas the SOP (Son Of Perdition). John 6:66 From that [time] many of his disciples went back, and walked no more with him.

First, I find no need to "account" for these things.  These things are based upon the so-called "doctrine of numerology," to which I grant very little credibility because it lacks Scriptural support.

Second, if for the sake of the argument we grant that the 1611 King James translation is the final basis for our Biblical study as English readers, then your numbering system concerning the books of the Bible is incorrect.  In the 1611 King James translation the 40th book was NOT Matthew.  Rather, the 40th book was 1 Esdras; for the 1611 King James translation included 14 books of the Apocrypha between Malachi and Matthew.  This would also mean that the 1611 King James translation included 80 books altogether, not 66.

Third, the fact that the 1611 King James translation included 14 books of the Apocrypha actually raises a question in relation to your belief system.  You believe that the 1611 King James translation provided "advance revelations," since you believe that the King James translators were somehow specially guided by God the Holy Spirit in the translational process.  So then, since they included 14 books of the Apocrypha, do you believe that we should be viewing these additional books as Holy Scripture as well?  If not, then how do you account for the inclusion of the Apocrypha by those who were supposedly so specially guided by God the Holy Spirit?  Was the inclusion of the Apocrypha by the will of man, by the will of God, or by the will of the devil?

Fourth, if, on the other hand, you deny the credibility of the Apocrypha books (although they were included in the 1611 edition of the King James translation) because those books are no longer included in the 1769 edition of the King James translation (which is the one that we use today), then that raises a different question.  Which of the five editions of the King James translation (1611 edition, 1629 edition, 1638 edition, 1762 edition, 1769 edition) is the single one that you have chosen to be your final authority?  Furthermore, if you choose any one of the four editions after the 1611, to what extent did the King James translators really possess the "special" guidance of the Holy Spirit, since what they did needed further editing changes?  In addition, what "special" guidance of the Holy Spirit was required for the various editors of these additional editions, in order to rightly make editing changes to that which had been originally given in 1611?  Finally, if the various editors were so granted "special" guidance of God the Holy Spirit to make editing changes to that which had come before them, then why is it no longer possible for God the Holy Spirit to provide "special" guidance again in our day to make more editing changes in our day (not that I myself have any desire that any such thing should occur)?  According to your belief system, how can you doctrinally verify from Holy Scripture that the edition of the King James translation that you have chosen for yourself is the FINAL authority which allows no further editing changes?