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Baptism for the Remission of Sins in Mark 1:4


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Mark 1:4 (KJV): "John did baptize in the wilderness, and preach the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins."

I've heard many differing explanations on this subject, and many seem to have some excellent points. But, many seem to forget that there can only be ONE correct answer on this subject. Again, in this thread, I will NOT be divulging my position. I am, however seeking to find out what other Baptists believe on this subject, and why this terminology would be used. Most Baptists don't believe that baptism is a prerequisite for the forgiveness of sin...so, why this verse? Having studied this and written a paper on it in Bible college years ago, it seemed like an interesting sub ject to bring forth here on OnlineBaptist!  If you have scripture to back up your theology, please make sure it is posted in your reply. Thanks in advance.

BT

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2 hours ago, BrotherTony said:

Mark 1:4 (KJV? "John did baptize in the wilderness, and preach the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins."

I've heard many differing explanations on this subject, and many seem to have some excellent points. But, many seem to forget that there can only be ONE correct answer on this subject. Again, in this thread, I will NOT be divulging my position. I am, however seeking to find out what other Baptists believe on this subject, and why this terminology would be used. Most Baptists don't believe that baptism is a prerequisite for the forgiveness of sin...so, why this verse?

Grammatically there are two possibilities concerning the prepositional phrasing "for the remission of sins."  One possibility is that this phrasing modifies the noun "baptism."  Thus it would be viewed that the work of baptism itself is that which resulted in "the remission of sins."  The other possibility is that this phrasing modifies the noun "repentance."  Thus it would be viewed that the repentance is that which resulted in "the remission of sins."  With regard to this second possibility, the baptism would be characterized as a "baptism of repentance," wherein John would ONLY baptize those who were actually willing to repent of (confess) their sins (see Mark 1:5 & Matthew 3:5-6), but refused those who self-righteously would not acknowledge their sinfulness (see Matthew 3:7-12 & Luke 3:7-9).  Furthermore, the repentance (confessing of sins) would be that which resulted in "the remission of sins" before God.

As for myself, in accord with the overall teaching of God's Word that salvation is not of works, but by grace, I would hold to the second option.  (Note: I would hold a similar position concerning Acts 2:38 - that the phrase "for the remission of sins" is to be grammatically connected with "the name of Jesus Christ" (faith therein), rather than with the verb "be baptized.")

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I get easily confused with grammar such as Bro. Scott brought out. I was taught a long time ago, and still believe today, that salvation is of Grace through Faith.

In the same vein I was also taught that in the Greek language, the word "for" was actually a translation of the Greek word "EIC", which meant "in reference to" or "because of". This would mean that that baptism was because my sin "had been remitted", not to remit it, for it is in the past tense.

This that I was taught sounds more in line with the rest of Scripture that teaches against baptismal regeneration. 

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On 11/3/2021 at 8:00 AM, BrotherTony said:

Mark 1:4 (KJV? "John did baptize in the wilderness, and preach the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins."

I've heard many differing explanations on this subject, and many seem to have some excellent points. But, many seem to forget that there can only be ONE correct answer on this subject. Again, in this thread, I will NOT be divulging my position. I am, however seeking to find out what other Baptists believe on this subject, and why this terminology would be used. Most Baptists don't believe that baptism is a prerequisite for the forgiveness of sin...so, why this verse? Having studied this and written a paper on it in Bible college years ago, it seemed like an interesting sub ject to bring forth here on OnlineBaptist!  If you have scripture to back up your theology, please make sure it is posted in your reply. Thanks in advance.

BT

Similar to Acts 2:38. and the Greek text construction makes clear that the One saving and remitting sins is the person baptized into, Lord Jesus, not the water baptism itself!

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