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Discrepancy between Leviticus 23:6 and Matthew 26:17 ?


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Leviticus 23:6 says : “And on the fifteenth day of the same month is the feast of unleavened bread...”

However, Matthew 26:17 says: “Now on the first day of the feast of unleavened bread the disciples came to Jesus, saying unto him, Where wilt thou that we prepare for thee to eat the passover?”

Any thoughts on the seeming discrepancy?

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10 hours ago, rstrats said:

Leviticus 23:6 says : “And on the fifteenth day of the same month is the feast of unleavened bread...”

However, Matthew 26:17 says: “Now on the first day of the feast of unleavened bread the disciples came to Jesus, saying unto him, Where wilt thou that we prepare for thee to eat the passover?”

Any thoughts on the seeming discrepancy?

The two holidays were eventually combined as one.

"Now the feast of unleavened bread drew nigh, which is called the Passover." Luke 22:1

The passover was originally to be held in each individual home but was eventually observed at the temple. 

The holidays were made for man not man for the holidays so God allowed some leeway. Mark 2:27

"In the first month, in the fourteenth day of the month, ye shall have the passover, a feast of seven days; unleavened bread shall be eaten."- Ezekiel 45:21

Edited by SureWord
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SureWord,
re:  "The holidays were made for man not man for the holidays so God allowed some leeway. Mark 2:27"

Actually, that verse is only referring to the Sabbath.  And I don't see how it allows any leeway with regard to when the Sabbath is to be observed. 
 

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On 2/13/2021 at 5:33 AM, rstrats said:

Leviticus 23:6 says : “And on the fifteenth day of the same month is the feast of unleavened bread...”

However, Matthew 26:17 says: “Now on the first day of the feast of unleavened bread the disciples came to Jesus, saying unto him, Where wilt thou that we prepare for thee to eat the passover?”

Any thoughts on the seeming discrepancy?

Leviticus is saying the 15th day of the month is the day the feast of unleavened brea

mmod starts.

Matthew is talking about the first day of the feast of the leavened bread. ( which would start on the 15th day of the month, in context )

No discrepancy. 

 

Edited by Hugh_Flower
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35 minutes ago, Hugh_Flower said:

Leviticus is saying the 15th day of the month is the day the feast of unleavened brea

mmod starts.

Matthew is talking about the first day of the feast of the leavened bread. ( which would start on the 15th day of the month, in context )

No discrepancy. 

 


So Matthew is placing the crucifixion no earlier than the 15th?  
 

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1 hour ago, rstrats said:

SureWord,
re:  "The holidays were made for man not man for the holidays so God allowed some leeway. Mark 2:27"

Actually, that verse is only referring to the Sabbath.  And I don't see how it allows any leeway with regard to when the Sabbath is to be observed. 
 

OK, then it's a discrepancy. The bible is in error. If that's the answer you're looking for. Or maybe it has to do with the mark of the beast like Sunday worship services do. 

David and his men ate the "shewbread" in the holy place which was forbidden and God didn't kill them.

Apparently, some tweaks were made to the law by the Jews and God didn't get to upset with it 

 

Edited by SureWord
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On 3/13/2021 at 6:25 AM, Hugh_Flower said:

Leviticus is saying the 15th day of the month is the day the feast of unleavened brea

mmod starts.

Matthew is talking about the first day of the feast of the leavened bread. ( which would start on the 15th day of the month, in context )

No discrepancy. 

 

Nailed it.

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15 hours ago, Danny Carlton said:

Nailed it.

So Matthew is placing the crucifixion no earlier than the 15th?  

On 3/13/2021 at 7:05 AM, SureWord said:

OK, then it's a discrepancy.

 


I don't see how Mark 2:27 shows that it is a discrepancy.

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On 3/13/2021 at 6:25 AM, Hugh_Flower said:

Leviticus is saying the 15th day of the month is the day the feast of unleavened brea

mmod starts.

Matthew is talking about the first day of the feast of the leavened bread. ( which would start on the 15th day of the month, in context )

No discrepancy. 

 


You have a question directed to you in post #5.

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On 3/18/2021 at 7:29 AM, rstrats said:

So Matthew is placing the crucifixion no earlier than the 15th?  


I don't see how Mark 2:27 shows that it is a discrepancy.

You are questioning why in Leviticus the Feast of Unleavened bread is said to start immediately AFTER the Passover while in Matthew it says the first day of that feast was on the the first day even hours before the Passover was eaten. 

I gave you two clear verses where it is said that both holidays were eventually celebrated or spoken of as one. The verse in Ezekiel calls the whole week the Passover.

What is the problem?

The Jews tweeked their laws to fit the situations they found themselves in. There were some laws the Romans would not allow them to follow. They even celebrated the Day of Atonement without the ark of the covenant during Christ's days on earth which was a no-no according to the Mosaic law. 

There's no apparent contradiction.

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On 5/23/2021 at 9:55 AM, SureWord said:

 

I gave you two clear verses where it is said that both holidays were eventually celebrated or spoken of as one. The verse in Ezekiel calls the whole week the Passover.

 


So the discrepancy actually had started at least by the time of Ezekiel

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