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  Leavening is sometimes symbolically used in Scripture as an impurity or sin. I believe it's pointing to the sinless, pure Jesus.

   The first time God had the Israelis prepare unleavened bread, it was because Israel was to leave Egypt in haste, & the bread was to be prepared unleavened so as to not waste time waiting for it to rise. This was, of course, before God ordained passover to be observed by Israel for ever.

 

 

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42 minutes ago, robycop3 said:

  Leavening is sometimes symbolically used in Scripture as an impurity or sin. I believe it's pointing to the sinless, pure Jesus.

   The first time God had the Israelis prepare unleavened bread, it was because Israel was to leave Egypt in haste, & the bread was to be prepared unleavened so as to not waste time waiting for it to rise. This was, of course, before God ordained passover to be observed by Israel for ever.

 

 

The "Lords Passeouer" (Lev.23:5)(14 Nisan) and "the feast of vnleauened bread"(Lev.23:6)(15 Nisan) are two different events. The "Lords Passeouer" was completed in the 34th year. This event is already in the past. The "the feast of vnleauened bread" is yet to come. More http://lordway.ru/English/put_gospoden/prazdnik_opresnok.htm 

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  No, Ezekiel 45:21 &John 18 :28 makes it plain passover is SEVEN DAYS LONG.

Eze. 45:21 In the first month, in the fourteenth day of the month, ye shall have the passover, a feast of seven days; unleavened bread shall be eaten.

 A direct quote of GOD'S words. Doesn't get any plainer !

John 18:28 Then led they Jesus from Caiaphas unto the hall of judgment: and it was early; and they themselves went not into the judgment hall, lest they should be defiled; but that they might eat the passover.

  The paschal lamb had been eaten earlier that day, so this can only be referring to the special unleavened meals to be eaten all week. Now, how many years shall passover be observed ? Ex. 12 makes this clear:14 And this day shall be unto you for a memorial; and ye shall keep it a feast to the Lord throughout your generations; ye shall keep it a feast by an ordinance for ever.

 

  The first 27 verses of Ex. 12 are about passover. it is NOT over; the Jews keep it now, with many calling it "Seder".

  Are WE supposed to keep it ? Not unless we desire to; it was given ONLY TO ISRAEL, as it was THEY who were "passed over" by God's destroyer. If we do keep it, we are to follow the same rules exactly that God gave to Israel.

 And, far as I know, "for ever" hasn't yet ended !

 

Edited by robycop3
typo
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Posted (edited)
1 hour ago, robycop3 said:

  No, Ezekiel 45:21 &John 18 :28 makes it plain passover is SEVEN DAYS LONG.

Eze. 45:21 In the first month, in the fourteenth day of the month, ye shall have the passover, a feast of seven days; unleavened bread shall be eaten.

 A direct quote of GOD'S words. Doesn't get any plainer !

John 18:28 Then led they Jesus from Caiaphas unto the hall of judgment: and it was early; and they themselves went not into the judgment hall, lest they should be defiled; but that they might eat the passover.

  The paschal lamb had been eaten earlier that day, so this can only be referring to the special unleavened meals to be eaten all week. Now, how many years shall passover be observed ? Ex. 12 makes this clear:14 And this day shall be unto you for a memorial; and ye shall keep it a feast to the Lord throughout your generations; ye shall keep it a feast by an ordinance for ever.

 

  The first 27 verses of Ex. 12 are about passover. it is NOT over; the Jews keep it now, with many calling it "Seder".

  Are WE supposed to keep it ? Not unless we desire to; it was given ONLY TO ISRAEL, as it was THEY who were "passed over" by God's destroyer. If we do keep it, we are to follow the same rules exactly that God gave to Israel.

 And, far as I know, "for ever" hasn't yet ended !

 

You consider the literal meaning of verses as “the word of men” (1 Thess. 2:13), therefore (Ezek. 45:21) contradicts (Lev. 23: 5,6). If we consider the text of the Bible as “a more accurate word of prophecy” (2 Peter 1:19), then (Ezek. 45:21) speaks of a future period of time. This is the time of the harvest "of barley" (Ruth 2:23) and the harvest of "wheat" (Rev.6: 6).

Edited by Konstantin
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  So, the Book of Ezekiel isn't accurate ? We still see the seven day principle applied in John 18:28.

Wheat & barley were both used by the Israelis.

As for passover, GOD said "for ever" That settles it !

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1 hour ago, robycop3 said:

  So, the Book of Ezekiel isn't accurate ? We still see the seven day principle applied in John 18:28.

Wheat & barley were both used by the Israelis.

As for passover, GOD said "for ever" That settles it !

“Now þe feast of vnleuened bread drew nigh, which is called the Passeouer“ (Luke.22:1);

        The feast of unleavened bread, according to ceremonial law, was ever no Passover. Please note that the Jewish holiday was approaching, not the feast of the Lord. “And the Passeouer, a feast of the Iewes, was nigh” (John.6:4). This means that Jewish tradition prevailed over the law of Moses, and the feast of unleavened bread was called the Passover. But now we are not interested in the historical circumstances of that time, we are considering the prophetic significance of verses. Although it must be said that it is precisely human errors, misconception and traditions of the fathers that help the Scripture Author, through the written text, to convey the true meaning contained in the prophetic meaning of verses."

http://lordway.ru/English/index_engl.htm#июнь 2017 года

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The feast of unleavened bread immediately followed the Passover. It represents the church's sinless position in Christ before the Father 

The seven day passover of Ezekiel most likely has to do with the millennial temple 

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Posted (edited)
On 6/14/2020 at 9:47 PM, Konstantin said:

Yes. And what?

As Christ is our passover he fulfills the passover law.  No other passovers now.

Edited by Invicta
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9 hours ago, Invicta said:

Unleavened bread was part of the passover.

 

No, "the Lords Passeouer" (KJV1611AV) was in the "fourteenth day" (Lev.23:5) of the month Nissan. The feast of unleavened bread was beginning "on the fifteenth day" of the month of Nissan and lasted "seuen dayes" (Lev.23:6), according to Moses' Law.

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On 6/22/2020 at 9:21 AM, Konstantin said:

No, "the Lords Passeouer" (KJV1611AV) was in the "fourteenth day" (Lev.23:5) of the month Nissan. The feast of unleavened bread was beginning "on the fifteenth day" of the month of Nissan and lasted "seuen dayes" (Lev.23:6), according to Moses' Law.

The feast of the unleavened bread was to remind the Jews that when the Lord brought them out of Egypt after the passover that they did not have time to proove their bread as they left in such a hurry.  The Jews eat unleavened bread at the passover. A jewish man once demonstrated the passover at a previus church I was in, and he showed the unleavened bread shich was like a large water biscuit about 10 inches square, as I remember.  Yes it is part of the passover celebrations.

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