Are "Angels" Always "Angels"?

[Ukulelemike]

"I will therefore put you in remembrance, though ye once knew this, how that the Lord, having saved the people out of the land of Egypt, afterward destroyed them that believed not. And the angels which kept not their first estate, but left their own habitation, he hath reserved in everlasting chains under darkness unto the judgment of the great day. Even as Sodom and Gomorrha, and the cities about them in like manner, giving themselves over to fornication, and going after strange flesh, are set forth for an example, suffering the vengeance of eternal fire."  (Jude 1:5-7)

So, I chose the lounge for this, because I am playing around with some speculation, and don't want to be seen as teaching some strange doctrines.

In this passage we see the statement about the angels who didn't keep their first estate, and are kept in everlasting chains until the judgment. Generally, these are understood as one of two things: angels who fell into rebellion with Satan when he fell, or angels who married human women and created super babies in Gen 6. But, what if it is neither?

Stay with me now. We know the word "angel", generally means 'messenger', and does not have to refer to a heavenly spirit being, as we see in Revelation 2&3, when referencing the angels of the churches, who are clearly the pastors, or human messengers who care for the churches.  In verse 5 above, we see first the example of the wicked people who left Egypt and were destroyed for their unbelief and rebellion; then we see the statement about the angels in Verse 6, then in verse 7, we again see humans, those of Sodom and Gomorrha, destroyed for going after strange flesh. All three are examples of God's judgment on the wicked.

Now, certainly angels fit alright here, as even angels who are rebellious will be judged. But what I wonder about is, If Satan is accompanied by HIS angels, his fallen angels, the devils, why aren't they in chains of darkness awaiting the judgment? Why just the particular angels seen here in Jude 6? Why did God cast SOME down for rebellion, but not the others? Not that I am questioning God, mind you. What I was wondering is, What if those angels mentioned here are not ANGEL-angels, but human messengers, or leaders? Perhaps those who led the rebellions against Moses and Aaron in the wilderness, who were killed, the earth opening up for them, might they be considered 'angels', messengers who delivered the message of the people's rebellion to Moses and Aaron, and are, along with those who followed them, reserved in chains under darkness? 

I guess two things seem odd to me, in the context of the passage: The first, in these three verses, the first focused on judgment of humans, the third, on  judgment of humans, while the second, between them, a switch to the judgment of angelic beings-seems out of place in the context. The second, again, being that these angels, if they are, are deemed worthy of immediate delivery to hell and chains, while the others that are the devils, with Satan, are allowed to run rampant in wickedness. Why the difference?

Anyways, just the thoughts that ramble around through my head.