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Publisher Whitaker House KJV Sword Study bible is NOT a true KJV


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1 hour ago, robycop3 said:

  Same word; one is capitalized for emphasis.

Thanks. How do you think, Why are these two verses written differently?


 "...Thou art my sonne, this day haue I begotten thee." (Ps.2:7) KJV1611

"...Thou art my Sonne, to day haue I begotten thee" (Heb.5:5) KJV1611

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2 minutes ago, robycop3 said:

  Difference between the hebrew & Greek readings.

We have a perfect translation in English KJV1611. Now we are only interested in the English text, i.e. the meaning of verses in English.

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54 minutes ago, Konstantin said:

We have a perfect translation in English KJV1611. Now we are only interested in the English text, i.e. the meaning of verses in English.

The KJV has had MANY changes though in its text and form since the original 1611, as there were known mistakes and issues in it that were corrected in later editions, such as the 1769 and the 1873!

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13 hours ago, DaChaser said:

The KJV has had MANY changes though in its text and form since the original 1611, as there were known mistakes and issues in it that were corrected in later editions, such as the 1769 and the 1873!

The Bible has dual authorship. There are mistakes and inaccuracies in it because it was written by "holy men of God" (2 Peter 1:21). The text of the Bible is "the word of men" (1 Thess. 2:13), which is clear to everyone. KJV1611AV calls these men according to their names (the 47 persons).  But these men "were moued by the holy Ghost" (2 Peter 1:21). Therefore, the Author of the prophetic meaning of Bible verses is God. God's Word is "a more sure word of prophecie"(2 Peter 1:19), than "the word of men" (1 Thess. 2:13). The prophetic meaning of Bible verses is hidden from unbelievers. The Author of the Scripture uses the mistakes of the men of God to convey His words to people who seek the truth. The Bible of King 1611 is AV approved by the Author of the Scriptures. Bible publications 1769 and 1873 are not AV. Scripture says:

"Studie to shewe thy selfe approued vnto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly diuiding the word of trueth." (2Tim.2:15)

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1 hour ago, Konstantin said:

The Bible has dual authorship

No, it doesn't.

1 hour ago, Konstantin said:

There are mistakes and inaccuracies in it because it was written by "holy men of God" (2 Peter 1:21).

No, there's not.

1 hour ago, Konstantin said:

The text of the Bible is "the word of men" (1 Thess. 2:13), which is clear to everyone. KJV1611AV calls these men according to their names (the 47 persons).

That's not what that verse says.

1 hour ago, Konstantin said:

Therefore, the Author of the prophetic meaning of Bible verses is God. God's Word is "a more sure word of prophecie"(2 Peter 1:19), than "the word of men" (1 Thess. 2:13).

So...only the prophetic verses are from God?

...but weren't they also written down by the men whom you said made mistakes?

1 hour ago, Konstantin said:

The prophetic meaning of Bible verses is hidden from unbelievers.

No, it's not just the prophetic meaning.

1 hour ago, Konstantin said:

The Author of the Scripture uses the mistakes of the men of God to convey His words to people who seek the truth.

No, the Author uses his word to convey his word.

 

1 hour ago, Konstantin said:

"Studie to shewe thy selfe approued vnto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly diuiding the word of trueth." (2Tim.2:15)

Please use this in your own life.

Wait...

...wasn't that also written by men who made mistakes? Wait...that's not prophetic either. Oh dear...

...and don't respond to this please. I've never seen such foolishness.

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45 minutes ago, No Nicolaitans said:

No, it doesn't...

No, there's not...

...and don't respond to this please. I've never seen such foolishness.

Sorry, but I answer: My post is one piece. You are trying to destroy the context of my post by dividing it into parts.

Therefore, I can only tell you: "No, Nicolaitans!"👋👇

 

The Bible has dual authorship. There are mistakes and inaccuracies in it because it was written by "holy men of God" (2 Peter 1:21). The text of the Bible is "the word of men" (1 Thess. 2:13), which is clear to everyone. KJV1611AV calls these men according to their names (the 47 persons).  But these men "were moued by the holy Ghost" (2 Peter 1:21). Therefore, the Author of the prophetic meaning of Bible verses is God. God's Word is "a more sure word of prophecie"(2 Peter 1:19), than "the word of men" (1 Thess. 2:13). The prophetic meaning of Bible verses is hidden from unbelievers. The Author of the Scripture uses the mistakes of the men of God to convey His words to people who seek the truth. The Bible of King 1611 is AV approved by the Author of the Scriptures. Bible publications 1769 and 1873 are not AV. Scripture says:

"Studie to shewe thy selfe approued vnto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly diuiding the word of trueth." (2Tim.2:15)

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45 minutes ago, Konstantin said:

Sorry, but I answer: My post is one piece. You are trying to destroy the context of my post by dividing it into parts.

Therefore, I can only tell you: "No, Nicolaitans!"👋👇

 

The Bible has dual authorship. There are mistakes and inaccuracies in it because it was written by "holy men of God" (2 Peter 1:21). The text of the Bible is "the word of men" (1 Thess. 2:13), which is clear to everyone. KJV1611AV calls these men according to their names (the 47 persons).  But these men "were moued by the holy Ghost" (2 Peter 1:21). Therefore, the Author of the prophetic meaning of Bible verses is God. God's Word is "a more sure word of prophecie"(2 Peter 1:19), than "the word of men" (1 Thess. 2:13). The prophetic meaning of Bible verses is hidden from unbelievers. The Author of the Scripture uses the mistakes of the men of God to convey His words to people who seek the truth. The Bible of King 1611 is AV approved by the Author of the Scriptures. Bible publications 1769 and 1873 are not AV. Scripture says:

"Studie to shewe thy selfe approued vnto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly diuiding the word of trueth." (2Tim.2:15)

Seriously? Okay. Then I'll answer your one post with one answer...

Why are you quoting non-prophetic verses, when (in your opinion) non-prophetic verses are not from God...and why do you trust prophetic verses when they were written down by the same men whom you claim made mistakes?

Edited by No Nicolaitans
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20 minutes ago, No Nicolaitans said:

 Okay. Then I'll answer your one post with one answer...

Why are you quoting non-prophetic verses, when (in your opinion) non-prophetic verses are not from God...and why do you trust prophetic verses when they were written down by the same men whom you claim made mistakes?

The answer to your question is already below 👋🙂👇

The Bible has dual authorship. There are mistakes and inaccuracies in it because it was written by "holy men of God" (2 Peter 1:21). The text of the Bible is "the word of men" (1 Thess. 2:13), which is clear to everyone. KJV1611AV calls these men according to their names (the 47 persons).  But these men "were moued by the holy Ghost" (2 Peter 1:21). Therefore, the Author of the prophetic meaning of Bible verses is God. God's Word is "a more sure word of prophecie"(2 Peter 1:19), than "the word of men" (1 Thess. 2:13). The prophetic meaning of Bible verses is hidden from unbelievers. The Author of the Scripture uses the mistakes of the men of God to convey His words to people who seek the truth. The Bible of King 1611 is AV approved by the Author of the Scriptures. Bible publications 1769 and 1873 are not AV. Scripture says:

"Studie to shewe thy selfe approued vnto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly diuiding the word of trueth." (2Tim.2:15)

image.gif

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1 minute ago, Konstantin said:

The answer to your question is already below 👋🙂👇

The Bible has dual authorship. There are mistakes and inaccuracies in it because it was written by "holy men of God" (2 Peter 1:21). The text of the Bible is "the word of men" (1 Thess. 2:13), which is clear to everyone. KJV1611AV calls these men according to their names (the 47 persons).  But these men "were moued by the holy Ghost" (2 Peter 1:21). Therefore, the Author of the prophetic meaning of Bible verses is God. God's Word is "a more sure word of prophecie"(2 Peter 1:19), than "the word of men" (1 Thess. 2:13). The prophetic meaning of Bible verses is hidden from unbelievers. The Author of the Scripture uses the mistakes of the men of God to convey His words to people who seek the truth. The Bible of King 1611 is AV approved by the Author of the Scriptures. Bible publications 1769 and 1873 are not AV. Scripture says:

"Studie to shewe thy selfe approued vnto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly diuiding the word of trueth." (2Tim.2:15)

image.gif

In other words, you're avoiding actually answering...

That's fine. Carry on.

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22 hours ago, robycop3 said:

  Difference between the hebrew & Greek readings.

“…Thou art my sonne, this day haue I begotten thee.” (Ps.2:7)

In this verse, Scripture speaks of the birth of Israel as the people of God at the beginning of the Millennium. It is said:

 “Israel is my sonne, euen my first borne” (Ex.4:22)

 “…Thou art my Sonne, to day haue I begotten thee.” (Heb.5:5)

This verse is about the birth of the Son of God, the Lord Jesus Christ on the Day of Pentecost, about His enthronement (Rev. 11:17) in the future.

Edited by Konstantin
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On 5/31/2020 at 1:10 AM, Konstantin said:

The Bible has dual authorship. There are mistakes and inaccuracies in it because it was written by "holy men of God" (2 Peter 1:21). The text of the Bible is "the word of men" (1 Thess. 2:13), which is clear to everyone. KJV1611AV calls these men according to their names (the 47 persons).  But these men "were moued by the holy Ghost" (2 Peter 1:21). Therefore, the Author of the prophetic meaning of Bible verses is God. God's Word is "a more sure word of prophecie"(2 Peter 1:19), than "the word of men" (1 Thess. 2:13). The prophetic meaning of Bible verses is hidden from unbelievers. The Author of the Scripture uses the mistakes of the men of God to convey His words to people who seek the truth. The Bible of King 1611 is AV approved by the Author of the Scriptures. Bible publications 1769 and 1873 are not AV. Scripture says:

"Studie to shewe thy selfe approued vnto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly diuiding the word of trueth." (2Tim.2:15)

The 1611 Translators were not inspired by God to make a perfect English translation, as they made the best of their time, was a revision of those before them, and later editions did correct the mistakes an d errors made in the 1611!

On 5/31/2020 at 2:26 AM, No Nicolaitans said:

No, it doesn't.

No, there's not.

That's not what that verse says.

So...only the prophetic verses are from God?

...but weren't they also written down by the men whom you said made mistakes?

No, it's not just the prophetic meaning.

No, the Author uses his word to convey his word.

 

Please use this in your own life.

Wait...

...wasn't that also written by men who made mistakes? Wait...that's not prophetic either. Oh dear...

...and don't respond to this please. I've never seen such foolishness.

Only the Originals were fully inerrant and inspired!

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20 minutes ago, DaChaser said:

The 1611 Translators were not inspired by God to make a perfect English translation, as they made the best of their time, was a revision of those before them, and later editions did correct the mistakes an d errors made in the 1611!

No. Bible says the 1611 Translators were inspired by God to make a perfect English translation.

In 1603 King James I came into power. In the first year his reign he made a decree concerning the Bible.

‘…In the first year of James the king the same James the king made a decree concerning the Bible. We read (Еzra.6:3):

‘in the first year of Cyrus the king the same Cyrus the king made a decree concerning the house of God at Jerusalem, Let the house be builded, the place where they offered sacrifices, and let the foundations thereof be strongly laid; the height thereof threescore cubits, and the breadth thereof threescore cubits’.

The height and width indicates the ‘volume’ of the Book. Sixty to sixty cubits, prophetically are 66 God-inspired books. We read the commandment more:

With three rows of great stones, and a row of new timber: and let the expenses be given out of the king’s house’ (Еzra.6:4).

The Bible includes the Old Testament -- ‘three rows of great stones’, and the New Testament -- ‘a row of new timber’. The Old Testament consists of three major sections: the Law, the Prophets and the Psalms. Jesus Himself has listed these three sections:

‘…all things must be fulfilled, which were written in the law of Moses, and in the prophets, and in the psalms, concerning me.’ (Luke 24:44).

The Scripture says that the king of England Jacob not only have granted permission, but yet also have financed all the costs of this work ‘out of the king’s house’…’ ©

The books of the New Testament also have prophecies about KJV1611

'we entered into the house of Philip the evangelist, which was one of the seven; and abode with him.
And the same man had four daughters, virgins, which did prophesy.
And as we tarried there many days, there came down from Judaea a certain prophet, named Agabus.
And when he was come unto us, he took Paul's girdle, and bound his own hands and feet, and said, Thus saith the Holy Ghost'
 (Acts 21: 8-11)

Our period of time (about 2000 years) is divided into 5 parts. Four 'daughters, virgins, which did prophesy' are the Antiochian manuscripts. When the prophet Agabus came, there was no longer any need for these daughters to prophesy. 'The Prophet Agabus' came in 1611.

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2 hours ago, Konstantin said:

No. Bible says the 1611 Translators were inspired by God to make a perfect English translation.

In 1603 King James I came into power. In the first year his reign he made a decree concerning the Bible.

‘…In the first year of James the king the same James the king made a decree concerning the Bible. We read (Еzra.6:3):

‘in the first year of Cyrus the king the same Cyrus the king made a decree concerning the house of God at Jerusalem, Let the house be builded, the place where they offered sacrifices, and let the foundations thereof be strongly laid; the height thereof threescore cubits, and the breadth thereof threescore cubits’.

The height and width indicates the ‘volume’ of the Book. Sixty to sixty cubits, prophetically are 66 God-inspired books. We read the commandment more:

With three rows of great stones, and a row of new timber: and let the expenses be given out of the king’s house’ (Еzra.6:4).

The Bible includes the Old Testament -- ‘three rows of great stones’, and the New Testament -- ‘a row of new timber’. The Old Testament consists of three major sections: the Law, the Prophets and the Psalms. Jesus Himself has listed these three sections:

‘…all things must be fulfilled, which were written in the law of Moses, and in the prophets, and in the psalms, concerning me.’ (Luke 24:44).

The Scripture says that the king of England Jacob not only have granted permission, but yet also have financed all the costs of this work ‘out of the king’s house’…’ ©

The books of the New Testament also have prophecies about KJV1611

'we entered into the house of Philip the evangelist, which was one of the seven; and abode with him.
And the same man had four daughters, virgins, which did prophesy.
And as we tarried there many days, there came down from Judaea a certain prophet, named Agabus.
And when he was come unto us, he took Paul's girdle, and bound his own hands and feet, and said, Thus saith the Holy Ghost'
 (Acts 21: 8-11)

Our period of time (about 2000 years) is divided into 5 parts. Four 'daughters, virgins, which did prophesy' are the Antiochian manuscripts. When the prophet Agabus came, there was no longer any need for these daughters to prophesy. 'The Prophet Agabus' came in 1611.

None of that would be from the scriptures, as again, 1611 had known issues that were fixed and corrected in later editions of the Kjv!

Think final corrected form was 1873 Cambridge!

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7 hours ago, DaChaser said:

None of that would be from the scriptures, as again, 1611 had known issues that were fixed and corrected in later editions of the Kjv!

Think final corrected form was 1873 Cambridge!

Some people think the final version was the Authorized King James Version; Pure Cambridge Edition1900.  But the Bible says AVKJV1611 is the word of God.

 

God shows us another manner that divides our time into two parts as 4+1:
We read (John.19:23-24):
 
'Then the soldiers, when they had crucified Jesus, took his garments, and made four parts, to every soldier a part; and also his coat: now the coat was without seam, woven from the top throughout. They said therefore among themselves, Let us not rend it, but cast lots for it, whose it shall be: that the scripture might be fulfilled, which saith, They parted my raiment among them, and for my vesture they did cast lots. These things therefore the soldiers did.’

And it was fulfilled the prophecy: 'They part my garments among them, and cast lots upon my vesture' (Ps.22:18). The four parts of 'his garments' were as equivalent to each another, and the vesture was not a ‘patchwork’, it was ‘without seam’. The vesture was made, as a single whole, without seams, it was not subject to any division.

God 'at sundry times and in divers manners' (Heb.1:1) shows us his Word KJV 1611
 
Scripture says:

‘The words of the LORD are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times. Thou shalt keep them, O LORD, thou shalt preserve them from this generation for ever.’ (Ps.12:6-7).

Cambridge1900 and 1873 editions are fake versions FV

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Um. No. Just no. 

First of all threescore is not 66 its 60.

Second of all this man conpletely ignored the literal, grammatical approach to scripture, instead allegorizing and eisegeting beliefs onto the biblical text.

I’m a King James guy, but not because of nonsensical reasoning like that posted by Konstantin.

 

 

Edited by Jordan Kurecki
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20 hours ago, Konstantin said:

No. Bible says the 1611 Translators were inspired by God to make a perfect English translation.

In 1603 King James I came into power. In the first year his reign he made a decree concerning the Bible.

‘…In the first year of James the king the same James the king made a decree concerning the Bible. We read (Еzra.6:3):

‘in the first year of Cyrus the king the same Cyrus the king made a decree concerning the house of God at Jerusalem, Let the house be builded, the place where they offered sacrifices, and let the foundations thereof be strongly laid; the height thereof threescore cubits, and the breadth thereof threescore cubits’.

The height and width indicates the ‘volume’ of the Book. Sixty to sixty cubits, prophetically are 66 God-inspired books. We read the commandment more:

With three rows of great stones, and a row of new timber: and let the expenses be given out of the king’s house’ (Еzra.6:4).

The Bible includes the Old Testament -- ‘three rows of great stones’, and the New Testament -- ‘a row of new timber’. The Old Testament consists of three major sections: the Law, the Prophets and the Psalms. Jesus Himself has listed these three sections:

‘…all things must be fulfilled, which were written in the law of Moses, and in the prophets, and in the psalms, concerning me.’ (Luke 24:44).

The Scripture says that the king of England Jacob not only have granted permission, but yet also have financed all the costs of this work ‘out of the king’s house’…’ ©

The books of the New Testament also have prophecies about KJV1611

'we entered into the house of Philip the evangelist, which was one of the seven; and abode with him.
And the same man had four daughters, virgins, which did prophesy.
And as we tarried there many days, there came down from Judaea a certain prophet, named Agabus.
And when he was come unto us, he took Paul's girdle, and bound his own hands and feet, and said, Thus saith the Holy Ghost'
 (Acts 21: 8-11)

Our period of time (about 2000 years) is divided into 5 parts. Four 'daughters, virgins, which did prophesy' are the Antiochian manuscripts. When the prophet Agabus came, there was no longer any need for these daughters to prophesy. 'The Prophet Agabus' came in 1611.

King of England, Jacob??? What? I think that was Cyrus, king of Babylon. 

 

This is an interesting view, but it makes absolutely no sense in the context you are applying it to. This is a complete and total fabrication that has not a single shred of bearing in reality. As said before, threescore is 60, not 66.  None of it makes any sense, save to try to pick and choose random facts to seek to fit a theory. Though I WOULD be interested to know where you got all of it. 

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1 hour ago, Ukulelemike said:

King of England, Jacob??? What? I think that was Cyrus, king of Babylon. 

 

This is an interesting view, but it makes absolutely no sense in the context you are applying it to. This is a complete and total fabrication that has not a single shred of bearing in reality. As said before, threescore is 60, not 66.  None of it makes any sense, save to try to pick and choose random facts to seek to fit a theory. Though I WOULD be interested to know where you got all of it. 

If you don’t understand anything, then why do you need to know where I got all of it?

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3 hours ago, Jordan Kurecki said:

Um. No. Just no. 

First of all threescore is not 66 its 60.

Second of all this man conpletely ignored the literal, grammatical approach to scripture, instead allegorizing and eisegeting beliefs onto the biblical text.

I’m a King James guy, but not because of nonsensical reasoning like that posted by Konstantin.

 

 

Hi, a King James guy. Here we are considering the prophetic meaning of verses, i.e. "a more sure word of prophecie" (2Peter 1:19), not literal ones, i.e. "not as the word of men" 1Thess. 2:13

Edited by Konstantin
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5 hours ago, Konstantin said:

If you don’t understand anything, then why do you need to know where I got all of it?

I don't understand it, because doctrinally and theologically, it is complete gibberish.  It is like those who say that each day of creation is a thousand years, because in 2Peter 3:8 says that with the Lord a thousand years is as a day, and a day as a thousand years-the two have nothing to do with each other, as one is history, and the other speaks of prophecy. Though at least there, there is somewhat of a reason people mistake them, since both have to do with God and how He understands time, while yours have nothing whatsoever to do with each other.

I am just curious of where you get it, because I'd be interested to see if there is any kind of logical joining of these completely disparate things by whoever interpreted it as such.

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