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Publisher Whitaker House KJV Sword Study bible is NOT a true KJV


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On ‎4‎/‎13‎/‎2019 at 8:42 PM, Janet said:

 

The last book of Revelation warns not to add or take away. 

All Bible translators add many words in translating and provide no word for some original-language words of Scripture.

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On 5/16/2020 at 7:52 PM, Alan said:

What is this? Fault-finding time for the KJV? Why do folks come to a KJV forum to find fault with the KJV and not enter into any of the other discussions? Methinks they come here on Online Baptist for ulterior motives.

Looking for excuses to change not only the different spellings involved with the different KJV version to justify the insidious corruptions found in all of the newer versions, including the NKJV, behind the corrections in spellings? So what is a pastor wants to keep the word spelled 'shew' instead of 'show?' Do we not have Christian liberty to do so?

Concerning the nit-picking issues of the spelling differences between the KJV versions, and other minor differences, the Lord Jesus said concerning those folks who use nit-picking issues to find fault with the work of God, the church, the Bible, and are like the Pharisees who found fault with the Lord Jesus Himself; the Lord Jesus said, "Ye blind guides, which strain at a gnat, and swallow a camel." Folks, even saints, strain at the gnats, the minor differences with the various KJV versions, and swallow the camel of trying to find a better version or accept these new corrupt versions; like the NKJV, are in error.

King Solomon stated, "They search out iniquities; they accomplish a diligent search, both the inward thought of every one of them, and the heart, is deep." Proverbs 64:6. The problem is spiritual and not with the minor differences in the KJV versions.

Have not you ever considered that God, in order to find out the intents of the heart, deliberately allowed these differences in the KJV versions with spelling differences to test us?

For those folks who just want to find fault with the KJV, please stop your nit-picking or just, out of Christian grace, leave and go so some other non-KJV forum.

 

 

 

There is a real need to have the Kjv updated to modern English grammar though. as not a fsault with kjv, just that language has changed greatly since translated!

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What is the clear definition of a "true King James Bible"?

How many changes or revisions to the 1611 edition of the KJV does it take for an edition not to be considered a "true" KJV?

What is the independent standard for determining which edition is to be claimed to be a "true" KJV

 

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Independent Baptists are not a denomination. Therefore there can be no Independent Standard, we are Independent and each church or person has to make their own determination. Whereas denominations have standards that are put in place by "headquarters", or those outside of the Local Church. Of course there are issues such as this that Independent Baptists agree on, or differ on, they are not "standards", as such.

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Is it being unintentionally suggested that the Bible is not the independent standard for what Bible doctrines that independent Baptist congregations believe and teach? 

Are the opinions and human reasoning of men made a greater authority than what the Bible states and teaches in some independent Baptist churches since the Bible does not teach some of the KJV-only opinions that individual churches may choose and wish to believe?

Is each local church to determine which KJV edition is supposedly "a true" KJV independent of what the Scriptures state and teach?

The editors who made changes, revisions, and corrections to the 1611 edition of the KJV maintained that the preserved Scriptures in the original languages was their proper standard and authority for making their changes.   According to scriptural truth, why would not the preserved original-language words of Scripture remain the standard and authority for determining which rendering in the many varying KJV editions is the correct or more accurate one?

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1 hour ago, Tyndale said:

Is it being unintentionally suggested that the Bible is not the independent standard for what Bible doctrines that independent Baptist congregations believe and teach? 

Are the opinions and human reasoning of men made a greater authority than what the Bible states and teaches in some independent Baptist churches since the Bible does not teach some of the KJV-only opinions that individual churches may choose and wish to believe?

Is each local church to determine which KJV edition is supposedly "a true" KJV independent of what the Scriptures state and teach?

The editors who made changes, revisions, and corrections to the 1611 edition of the KJV maintained that the preserved Scriptures in the original languages was their proper standard and authority for making their changes.   According to scriptural truth, why would not the preserved original-language words of Scripture remain the standard and authority for determining which rendering in the many varying KJV editions is the correct or more accurate one?

Each local Baptist church has local autonomy to make those type of decisions, as one can be KJVO, while another chooses not to be....

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On 3/21/2020 at 5:08 PM, robycop3 said:

  I don't believe the KJV  text should be changed at all. it should be the 1611 edition, as that was the original one, and all its makers are long-dead, freezing their work in time.

  And I'd like to see the translators' preface, "To The Reader" included, as well as the Apocrypha placed between the Testaments, as the AV 1611 has.

I have a question on KJV 1611. What is the difference between "He" and "She" KJV1611?

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42 minutes ago, Konstantin said:

I have a question on KJV 1611. What is the difference between "He" and "She" KJV1611?

Also, even someone such as a dean Burgeon did not agree that the 1611 Kjv could not be improved and fixed to be more accurate to he original texts!

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9 minutes ago, DaChaser said:

Also, even someone such as a dean Burgeon did not agree that the 1611 Kjv could not be improved and fixed to be more accurate to he original texts!

Are these two different editions? "He" and "She"

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   The first printings of the AV 1611 ended Ruth 3:15 with "and HE went into the city." Subsequent printings & modern ones read, "and SHE went into the city", which context shows to be correct.

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50 minutes ago, robycop3 said:

   The first printings of the AV 1611 ended Ruth 3:15 with "and HE went into the city." Subsequent printings & modern ones read, "and SHE went into the city", which context shows to be correct.

Thank you, robycop3. Can you tell from what year “she” began to print?

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7 hours ago, robycop3 said:

   The first printings of the AV 1611 ended Ruth 3:15 with "and HE went into the city." Subsequent printings & modern ones read, "and SHE went into the city", which context shows to be correct.

How do you think, why are the words Heaven and Earth written with a capital letter?

In the beginning God created the Heauen, and the Earth. (Gen.1:1) KJV1611

Edited by Konstantin
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19 hours ago, Konstantin said:

Are these two different editions? "He" and "She"

Yes, the 1611 "He" edition and the 1611 "She" edition are two different editions of the KJV.   The identification of "He" edition and "She" edition does come from the difference at Ruth 3:15.   The "He" 1611 edition is also known for its error at Exodus 14:10 where it repeated 21 words.

There were also other differences.  In appendix 2 ["First and second edition variations"] of his book A Textual History of the King James Bible, David Norton listed seven pages of differences (pp. 173-179).

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25 minutes ago, Tyndale said:

Yes, the 1611 "He" edition and the 1611 "She" edition are two different editions of the KJV.   The identification of "He" edition and "She" edition does come from the difference at Ruth 3:15.   The "He" 1611 edition is also known for its error at Exodus 14:10 where it repeated 21 words.

There were also other differences.  In appendix 2 ["First and second edition variations"] of his book A Textual History of the King James Bible, David Norton listed seven pages of differences (pp. 173-179).

Thanks. I've got one more question. Was the "She" KJV Bible printed in 1612?

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26 minutes ago, Konstantin said:

 Was the "She" KJV Bible printed in 1612?

I think that some of editions of it have a 1611 date on the title page while there may be some editions of it that have been found with a 1613 date on the title page.   

David Norton observed:  "Though it is probable that the 'She" Bible, in one of its varying forms, dates from 1611, it is genuinely a second edition" (Textual History, p. 65).   Norton added:  "Since "she went" is the commoner reading, the second edition is taken as being much more influential than it really was; most of the early editions that have 'she went' derive from the first edition, not the second" (Ibid.)

The early editions of the KJV were printed as individual pages unbound by the printer.   They had to be taken to a separate binder to be bound as a book.    Thus, sometimes loose pages from different printings of the same size edition could be bound together.   That explains how this edition may be found with two different dates.

Edited by Tyndale
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20 minutes ago, Tyndale said:

I think that some of editions of it have a 1611 date on the title page while there may be some editions of it that have been found with a 1613 date on the title page.   David Norton observed:  "Though it is probable that the 'She" Bible, in one of its varying forms, dates from 1611, it is genuinely a second edition" (Textual History, p. 65). 

The early editions of the KJV were printed as individual pages unbound by the printer.   They had to be taken to a separate binder to be bound as a book.    Thus, sometimes loose pages from different printings of the same size edition could be bound together.   That explains how this edition may be found with two different dates.

Thanks.

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On 3/21/2020 at 5:08 PM, robycop3 said:

  I don't believe the KJV  text should be changed at all. it should be the 1611 edition, as that was the original one, and all its makers are long-dead, freezing their work in time.

  And I'd like to see the translators' preface, "To The Reader" included, as well as the Apocrypha placed between the Testaments, as the AV 1611 has.

How do you think, why is the word son written differently here?

"For vnto which of the Angels said he at any time, Thou art my sonne, this day haue I begotten thee? And again, I will be to him a Father, and he shall be to me a Sonne." (Heb.1:5) KJV1611

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1 hour ago, robycop3 said:

  "Sonne" was simply an old spelling for "son".

There are two words "son" here sonne and Sonne

"For vnto which of the Angels said he at any time, Thou art my sonne, this day haue I begotten thee? And again, I will be to him a Father, and he shall be to me a Sonne." (Heb.1:5) KJV1611

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