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Four Blood Moons on God’s Feast Days


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Thank you both for the clarification, brothers NN and Invicta... Now I'd like to go back to the verse for yet another word:

Matt. 24:21 " For then shall be great tribulation, such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time, no, nor ever shall be."

to the "shall be" part. Brother Invicta, please tell me: Why would Christ say "shall be" if the event had already happened?

Thank you!

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14 hours ago, Ronda said:

Thank you both for the clarification, brothers NN and Invicta... Now I'd like to go back to the verse for yet another word:

Matt. 24:21 " For then shall be great tribulation, such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time, no, nor ever shall be."

to the "shall be" part. Brother Invicta, please tell me: Why would Christ say "shall be" if the event had already happened?

Thank you!

Sister Ronda

When Jesus spoke it was still future.  When I was not able to get on here at the beginning of the year, I studied the Olivet prophecy and wrote my conclusions. I am not sure if I finished it, as it has disappeared from my computer.  If I can find a backup I will post it on a new thread.  The first thing I noticed that I had not before, was that Matthew 24 was a direct continuation of Matthew 23.  Jesus had pronounced  all the woes on the leaders, that their house was left to them desolate and that it would all come on that generation. Leaving the temple the disciples said to Jesus. Look at these great stones (Some were said to be 25 tons.) how can this all be left desolate?  Matt 24 goes on from there.  If you don't know the history and horror of how that was all fulfilled, I suggest you read Josephus , Wars of the Jews, and you will find it all recorded in history by an eyewitness.

David

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We do have to be careful with some terminology.

Does Luke 2:1

"And it came to pass in those days, that there went out a decree from Caesar Augustus that all the world should be taxed."

literally mean "all the world" was taxed?

There are many instances in Scripture where words or terms are used in an other than literal sense. Just as today we may read a headline stating "the whole world stopped to listen to the pope's spech" or "everyone around the world paused to hear the pope's speech". Did the "whole world" literally stop and listen? Did every person around the world actually pause and hear?

We do indeed have to be careful in our understanding of various wordings to detect if such should be taken literally or in a figurative or symbolic sense.

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On ‎2016‎年‎4‎月‎11‎日 at 3:45 AM, Invicta said:

These charts are worth  nothing, as they are not based on scripture Just one pint, for instance.  If you read Jeremiah carefully, the time of Jacobs trouble was the then impending trouble with Nebuchadnezzar.  Larkin's charts are fiction.

1. The time of Jacob's Trouble is future: the trouble that occured with Nebucahdnezzar was a foretaste of the impending doom of Revelation chapter 6-19 on the the whole earth.

2. Clarence Larkin's charts are not fiction. They are probably the best charts available for a biblical study, and understanding, of the end times.

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On 4/20/2016 at 8:41 PM, Alan said:

1. The time of Jacob's Trouble is future: the trouble that occured with Nebucahdnezzar was a foretaste of the impending doom of Revelation chapter 6-19 on the the whole earth.

2. Clarence Larkin's charts are not fiction. They are probably the best charts available for a biblical study, and understanding, of the end times.

So why do you think Jacob's trouble is still yet to occur?

What scriptural evidence can you quote that says anything else about a Jacob's trouble happening beyond the OT?

If you have none, why put that time beyond the scriptures of the OT?

And if you can't answer the above the way you want by using 'then' current scripture history, are you willing to change your thinking on something that is only mentioned one time in scripture, without any 'modern' explanation that matches what most think about the 'time of Jacob's trouble'?

Seriously asked. Thanks.

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3 hours ago, Genevanpreacher said:

So why do you think Jacob's trouble is still yet to occur?

What scriptural evidence can you quote that says anything else about a Jacob's trouble happening beyond the OT?

If you have none, why put that time beyond the scriptures of the OT?

And if you can't answer the above the way you want by using 'then' current scripture history, are you willing to change your thinking on something that is only mentioned one time in scripture, without any 'modern' explanation that matches what most think about the 'time of Jacob's trouble'?

Seriously asked. Thanks.

I had previously commented on the 'Time of Jacob's Trouble,' Jeremiah 30, specifically, Jeremiah 30:7 & 24, in the Revelation Chapter 19-22 Study. Here is the link:

As the material (short as it was), that I presented was rejected at the time I am not sure if it is worthwhile repeating the material as I do not want to create dissension, or a debate, over this issue. During the Revelation study I was bitterly attacked for my beliefs and I do not want a repetition of the  verbal animosity.

I will consider your questions for a day of two and at that time either reply or not reply.

Alan

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On 4/19/2016 at 3:39 PM, Invicta said:

 If I can find a backup I will post it on a new thread.

Dear Invicta, thank you, but please don't bother. It shouldn't take finding a backup of notes to describe what " no, nor ever shall be " means to you. To me, it means what it says. Literally.

7 hours ago, Genevanpreacher said:

So why do you think Jacob's trouble is still yet to occur?

What scriptural evidence can you quote that says anything else about a Jacob's trouble happening beyond the OT?

Dear Genievanpreacher,  The "time of Jacob's trouble" noted in Jer. 30:7 has at least one prerequisite given.

Jer. 30:3 "For, lo, the days come, saith the Lord, that I will bring again the captivity of my people Israel and Judah, saith the Lord: and I will cause them to return to the land that I gave to their fathers, and they shall possess it."

Reason #1. The Jews are back in the land, the time of Jacob's trouble could not have occurred prior to this event (the Jew's regathered back into Israel). Since this event did not happen until 1948, it is sure "the time of Jacob's trouble" could not happen until at least that precondition was met.


 

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8 hours ago, Ronda said:

Dear Invicta, thank you, but please don't bother. It shouldn't take finding a backup of notes to describe what " no, nor ever shall be " means to you. To me, it means what it says. Literally.

Dear Genievanpreacher,  The "time of Jacob's trouble" noted in Jer. 30:7 has at least one prerequisite given.

Jer. 30:3 "For, lo, the days come, saith the Lord, that I will bring again the captivity of my people Israel and Judah, saith the Lord: and I will cause them to return to the land that I gave to their fathers, and they shall possess it."

Reason #1. The Jews are back in the land, the time of Jacob's trouble could not have occurred prior to this event (the Jew's regathered back into Israel). Since this event did not happen until 1948, it is sure "the time of Jacob's trouble" could not happen until at least that precondition was met.


 

While I agree with your premise this still adds a problem for if the rebirth of Israel in 1948 was a precondition, then the return of Christ for us could not have been imminent prior to 1948.

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11 hours ago, Ronda said:

Dear Invicta, thank you, but please don't bother. It shouldn't take finding a backup of notes to describe what " no, nor ever shall be " means to you. To me, it means what it says. Literally.

Dear Genievanpreacher,  The "time of Jacob's trouble" noted in Jer. 30:7 has at least one prerequisite given.

Jer. 30:3 "For, lo, the days come, saith the Lord, that I will bring again the captivity of my people Israel and Judah, saith the Lord: and I will cause them to return to the land that I gave to their fathers, and they shall possess it."

Reason #1. The Jews are back in the land, the time of Jacob's trouble could not have occurred prior to this event (the Jew's regathered back into Israel). Since this event did not happen until 1948, it is sure "the time of Jacob's trouble" could not happen until at least that precondition was met.


 

Dear Ronda

At the time it was written the Jews were in exile or about to be sent into exile and they returned under Zerubbabel and they did then possess the land so your Reason #1 is no reason at all.

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3 hours ago, John81 said:

While I agree with your premise this still adds a problem for if the rebirth of Israel in 1948 was a precondition, then the return of Christ for us could not have been imminent prior to 1948.

How so? It would only be a problem to those who believe the "time of Jacob's trouble" has to happen prior to the rapture. I do not. The rapture is imminent and will occur prior to the time of Jacob's trouble.

 

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1 hour ago, Invicta said:

At the time it was written the Jews were in exile or about to be sent into exile and they returned under Zerubbabel and they did then possess the land so your Reason #1 is no reason at all.

Dear Invicta,

If that was the case... why then would God's say  (in the same chapter) Jer. 30:24 "The fierce anger of the Lord shall not return, until he hath done it, and until he have performed the intents of his heart: in the latter days ye shall consider it." ?

Was the time of Zerubbabel the latter days? Did the Lord's fierce anger not return again? How can past events in the 500 BC's meet the definition of "latter days"?

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2 hours ago, Ronda said:

Dear Invicta,

If that was the case... why then would God's say  (in the same chapter) Jer. 30:24 "The fierce anger of the Lord shall not return, until he hath done it, and until he have performed the intents of his heart: in the latter days ye shall consider it." ?

Was the time of Zerubbabel the latter days? Did the Lord's fierce anger not return again? How can past events in the 500 BC's meet the definition of "latter days"?

As the return happened in B.C., why would you think it to be a future from now?

From their view in B.C. their return was latter days.

Edited by Genevanpreacher
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The latter days were after the return, the former days were the days before the exile.  Zech. 8:11  But now I will not be unto the residue of this people as in the former days, saith the LORD of hosts.

Edited by Invicta
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3 hours ago, Invicta said:

The latter days were after the return, the former days were the days before the exile.  Zech. 8:11  But now I will not be unto the residue of this people as in the former days, saith the LORD of hosts.

Invicta,

Peter said the last days started after Jesus went to heaven. read Acts 2:17-18

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