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Scriptural distinctions between the nation of Israel & the "Church"


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that being said wouldn't the book of Hebrews and Revelation be evidence that God is not finished with the nation of Israel?


If you read the book of Hebrews with the mind set that it's speaking to the future remnant in Israel that will be waiting patiently for the Lord's return during the tribulation you'll find out that the book makes much more sense. I'm not saying that their isn't doctrine for the believer in the church age but it is primarily speaking to a future remnant. This is nothing new. The OT was written this way on many occasion. Many passages in the OT prophets were directed towards a future group of people that didnt even exist at the time of the writing. For example: Isaiah 53. Well, the NT does this also. The mistake everyone makes is thinking that the whole NT is written for believers now with nothing to say for those during the tribulation AFTER the church has been raptured out. The church will be gone therefore the people during the tribulaion are not part of the bride of Christ though they are still saved by the blood. This explains Hebrews and why passages clearly state that if one backslides or takes the mark they can lose their salvation. That's because Hebrews is directed towards a totally different group of people then the NT church in this age prior to the rapture. I just can't understand why Christians can't grasp this. It makes so much sense when you realize this and the scriptures open up and all the alleged contradictions are sweeped away and things begin to make sense.
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Does anyone else on the forum agree with Wilchbla?

Wilchbla:
If you read the book of Hebrews with the mind set that it's speaking to the future remnant in Israel that will be waiting patiently for the Lord's return during the tribulation you'll find out that the book makes much more sense.

Sorry, but the "mind set" I use to read Scripture letters is to seek to understand them in the normal way, not to impose a hermeneutic.

Your views aren't suggested by the Scofield notes.
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Wilchbla:
Where did Paul write "these last days"? You don't know who the writer of Hebrews is so don't go there. There's a good reason we don't know who the writer of Hebrews is.

I wasn't arguing about the author, but specifically Hath in these last days spoken unto us by [his] Son. The days they were living in, having received the words of the Son of God in person.

And the prophecy of Joel was never totally fulfilled. The sun didn't turn dark Mat 27:45 Now from the sixth hour there was darkness over all the land unto the ninth hour. and the moon didn't change into blood. There was no fire, Act 2:3 And there appeared unto them cloven tongues like as of fire, and it sat upon each of them. smoke, etc. before THE NOTABLE DAY OF THE LORD (i.e. the Second Coming of Christ). So either Peter was lying, being poetic or the whole deal was put on hold for a reason. At Pentecost there was no possible reason why, as you put it, "the whole deal" should be "put on hold." Full & free forgiveness was preached. There may be a poetic element, but the appearance of the moon is not recorded, nor is smoke.

Note that Peter declares: Act 2:16 But this is that which was spoken by the prophet Joel;
17 And it shall come to pass in the last days, saith God......

When will Hebrews 1:2 take place? In the "last days". The last days in scripture is ALWAYS the period of time just prior the Second Coming of Christ.
No. Have you looked at the 8 verses in Scripture where "last days" are mentioned? e.g. James accuses his readers:
Jam 5:3 Your gold and silver is cankered; and the rust of them shall be a witness against you, and shall eat your flesh as it were fire. Ye have heaped treasure together for the last days.

The 60s were the last days of the nation before the AD 70 destruction.
Edited by Covenanter
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Does it really matter who wrote it? I think Paul did. Yet what counts is its from God.

Heb 1:1 ¶ God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets,

2Ti 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
2Ti 3:17 That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.

And all Scriptures are given to us, they are is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.

And the one that says different, disagrees with the Word of God

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Covenator, I really don't care if anyone in here agrees with me or not though I know of at least two posters in this forum who do. The book of Hebrews clearly is clearly written to Hebrews in the last days. I don't know how much clearer it can be.
I also find it laughable you think the AD60s were the last days.

Edited by Wilchbla
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Are your saying that nothing in the book of Hebrews applies to us today, including the verses below?



Heb 10:22 Let us draw near with a true heart in full assurance of faith, having our hearts sprinkled from an evil conscience, and our bodies washed with pure water.
Heb 10:23 Let us hold fast the profession of our faith without wavering; (for he is faithful that promised;)
Heb 10:24 And let us consider one another to provoke unto love and to good works:
Heb 10:25 Not forsaking the assembling of ourselves together, as the manner of some is; but exhorting one another: and so much the more, as ye see the day approaching.

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Covenator, I really don't care if anyone in here agrees with me or not though I know of at least two posters in this forum who do. The book of Hebrews clearly is clearly written to Hebrews in the last days. I don't know how much clearer it can be.
I also find it laughable you think the AD60s were the last days.


So you think that bthe book of Hebrews has nothing to say to us today?
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