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When Jesus says the only way you can divorce your wife and it be permitted, is if she commits fornication (either before or during betrothal, I suppose), is it a situation where the woman would be married to the person she had relations with, in God’s eyes (relations=marriage?) or was it not something that had to be done, but would be permissible for other reasons? Basically, what if the woman was truly repentant of her past actions and truly loved and wanted to be a good wife to the man. Would the man have to not be with her, to be in God’s will, because by God’s law, it would be forbid
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Suppose you are a young adult male who works for a company that has a CEO and a superintendent over you. One day, the CEO tells you that you are no longer to come to work on Tuesdays; that only females are allowed to work that day. Later that day, the superintendent calls you into his office and tells you you are expected to work for four hours every Tuesday. Who do you OBey? Would you not go to the CEO to get the confusion straightened out? Well, look at God as the CEO and the pastor as the Superintendent. God's Word says that His tithe is to go to Jerusalem. He gives no other locatio
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Romans 7:4 Wherefore, my brethren, ye also are become dead to the law by the body of Christ; that ye should be married to another, even to him who is raised from the dead, that we should bring forth fruit unto God. Romans 7:6 But now we are delivered from the law, that being dead wherein we were held; that we should serve in newness of spirit, and not in the oldness of the letter. Why is it today that so many Christians have no qualms about committing spiritual adultery? They attest that they are married to Christ Jesus, yet they subject themselves to the bed of the Law by insisting they