Tyndale used Passover and Easter interchangably in his text. In fact Tyndales NT said Christ is our Easter lamb.
The anglo saxon NT used the word Easter every place where the Greek word “Pascha” was used.
Easter is the same as Passover in Acts 12.
And no the days of unleavened bread starting does not mean it could not have been Passover.
Ezekiel 45:21 KJV
 In the first month , in the fourteenth day of the month, ye shall have the passover, a feast of seven days; unleavened bread shall be eaten.
I dont think William Tyndale was so stupid that he thought Christ wasn’t the passover lamb. Its clear from his translation, and the anglo saxon bible that Easter at one point in the English language was a synonym for passover.
This rediculous idea about a Pagan holiday being called by the same Greek name in NT time as the Jewish Passover is nonsense and it makes it hard for people to take us seriously when we defend the KJV.
Easter in Acts 12 is not a pagan holiday and neither is it a “goof”, It was simply a synonym for Passover in the English language at that time.
According to Webster 1828
A festival of the christian church observed in commemoration of our Savior's resurrection. It answers to the pascha or passover of the Hebrews, and most nations still give it this name, pascha, pask, paque.
According to Smiths Bible dictionary
Easter. Act 12:4. In the earlier English versions, Easter has been frequently used as the translation of pascha, (Passover). In the Authorized Version, Passover was substituted in all passages but this; and in the new Revision, Passover is used here. See Passover.
In the early English versions this word was frequently used as the translation of the Greek pascha (the Passover). When the Authorized Version (1611) was formed, the word “passover” was used in all passages in which this word pascha occurred, except in Acts 12