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Pastor Scott Markle

Independent Fundamental Baptist
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Everything posted by Pastor Scott Markle

  1. 2 Timothy 3:13 -- "But evil men and seducers shall wax worse and worse, deceiving, and being deceived."
  2. Indeed, this is the same as I presented: On the other hand, I accept that my challenge to you was in error; for you do indeed understand the position of the Calvinist. Thus I ask you to forgive the following challenge:
  3. Indeed, this is a little more clear than saying, "Neither a Calvinist nor Arminian, but a Baptist," since the Baptists have included whole categories both of Calvinists and Arminians. As for myself, I would agree -- Neither a Calvinist nor an Arminian, but a Biblicist. (Although to be precise, I would have to acknowledge that I hold the same as the Arminian on three out of five "points," since those three points are mutually exclusive and only allow for an "either/or" option. Yet I am neither Calvinist nor Arminian on the other two "points.")
  4. I think that you have not provided enough information for us to understand the primary point or contextual purpose of your question. Do I think that such confusion sometimes occurs? Yes. Do I think that such confusion necessarily occurs? No. Do I think that some might accuse others of such confusion, but actually be wrong in their accusation? Yes. Do I think that my "politics" should be completely separated somehow from my Biblical Christianity? NO, GOD FORBID!!!! In fact, I would forcefully contend that my "politics" and my discernment of "politics" should EVER AND ALWAYS be sub
  5. Yet this would still leave open the question -- Are you talking about General Baptist (Arminian in belief system), Particular Baptist (Calvinist in belief system), Free Will Baptist (Arminian in belief system), Regular Baptist (somewhat Calvinist in belief system), or some other kind of Baptist? Even so, claiming to be Baptist does not necessarily distinguish you from the question concerning Calvinist or Arminian, nor does it actually answer which (if either) you might be.
  6. Brother MBKJPreacher, With all due respect, your understanding of what I hold concerning the manner through which lost sinners come to salvation/regeneration is simply wrong. In my above posting I very specifically focused my explanation on the matter of "loving sin" AFTER salvation/regeneration. In fact, in that above explanation I provided only two comments wherein I revealed some hint as to my position concerning the manner through which lost sinners come to salvation/regeneration; and both of those comments were provided by a parenthetical. In my opening paragraph, I stated
  7. Brother MBKJPreacher, I recognize that your primary theme throughout this thread discussion concerns the matter of repentance for salvation. However, since I entered this thread discussion on the matter of "loving sin" after the moment of salvation/regeneration, I wish to present some further explanation concerning my understanding thereof. I do this partially because some define the repentance necessary for salvation (yes, I do believe that it is necessary) in such a manner that it mandates certain behavior after salvation/regeneration, or else they claim that genuine repentance never
  8. With all humble honesty, there are STILL some sins at some times that I love, even after being a child of God for 34 years. The reason -- because I still retain the inner motivations of my selfish, sinful "flesh." In fact, there is NO good thing, no, not even the smallest speck, in my selfish, sinful "flesh;" and thus my selfish, sinful "flesh" ALWAYS loves sin and hates godliness.
  9. So then, let us answer the title question of this thread discussion, allowing God's Word to say what it says -- Where did Jesus go when he died, hell burning with fire or paradise? 1. After His death where did our Lord Jesus Christ's body go? Answer -- In the tomb. Matthew 27:59-60 -- "And when Joseph had taken the body, he wrapped it in a clean linen cloth, and laid it in his own new tomb, which he had hewn out in the rock: and he rolled a great stone to the door of the sepulchre, and departed." 2. After His death where did our Lord Jesus Christ's spirit go? A
  10. Brother DaChaser, for my response(s) to this please consider my postings in the thread -- Where did Jesus go when he died, hell burning with fire or paradise? (starting with the following).
  11. Brother Jim, thank you for your expression of appreciation. As you well know, length and depth tend to be common descriptions for my postings. Such is one of the reasons that I do not contribute quite as much as in the past on Online Baptist. I just do not have as much time to be as thorough as I desire, so I pick my engagements more selectively.
  12. Ahhhh, then you stand in agreement with Brother DC on this point; and I stand in disagreement with both of you on it.
  13. Now for a moment let us consider the word "paradise" as it is employed in the title of this thread. Within the King James translation, the English word "paradise" is found a total of three times: Luke 23:43 -- "And Jesus said unto him [the believing thief on the cross], Verily I say unto thee, To day shalt thou be with me in paradise." 2 Corinthians 12:4 -- "How that he [the one who was 'caught up to the third heaven' according to verse 2] was caught up into paradise, and heard unspeakable words, which it is not lawful for a man to utter." Revelation 2:7 -- "He that hath an ear
  14. Brother DaChaser, if you read my posting completely and follow its thought to conclusion, you will find that I am contending simply that "ascending" into heaven and "entering" into heaven are Biblically to be understood as two different things. I am NOT denying that any believer, either of the Old Testament or of the New Testament, "entered" heaven upon death. In fact, in an earlier posting I specifically declared my position (in response to a question by Brother DC) that Old Testament believers went "straight to heaven" upon their death. However, Brother DC argued against my position by pr
  15. No sir, I would hold that the shed blood and sacrificial death of the Lord Jesus Christ is the ONLY propitiation acceptable in the sight of the Lord God for any sinner to be saved in any time. Yet my belief system would also acknowledge that in the viewpoint of the Lord God our Lord Jesus Christ is "the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world." (See Revelation 13:8)
  16. Brother Dave, as you indicated in your above posting, the most basic meaning for the Hebrew word "sheol" (as well as the Greek word "hades") is "the place of the dead." As such, "sheol" can contextually mean one of two things: 1. The grave itself, wherein the dead body is placed. (Even as the King James translators translated it in two of the passages that you referenced above, Genesis 37:35 & Psalm 49:15) 2. The place of God's judgment against the wicked dead. For this reason the translators chose most of the time to translate the Hebrew word "sheol" with the English word "
  17. Certainly I understand this conclusion on your part, since I was actually raised up through churches and schools that held the same viewpoint as you do. However, the conclusion that you have presented is the very reason that I asked the following question earlier in the thread discusion -- 1. The holy angels and the Lamb (Christ) are residents of heaven. 2. Those under God's wrath are "tormented with fire and brimstone" in the very presence of those heavenly residents. 3. Yet those under God wrath are not themselves in heaven itself. 4. Thus the conclusion seems valid that t
  18. Brother DC, that is the answer to my question which I expected, since it is the commonly held view of those who hold to your overall position on this matter concerning the temporary holding place for Old Testament believers. However, I did not wish to assume your answer; thus I asked the question. Now, in relation to your answer -- With the opening line of Acts 2:34, the apostle Peter declared in the present tense under the inspiration of God the Holy Spirit concerning David, "For David IS NOT ascended into the heavens." This declaration by Peter was made weeks after the death, burial,
  19. Brother DC, in your explanation you speak concerning "two sides" of "this place" (in the singular), as if the Scriptural passage presents the rich man and Lazarus as going after death to the same place, just a different side of that same place. However, the Scriptural passage NEVER indicates that they went to the same place. It ONLY indicates that the rich man went to hell, and that Lazarus went "into Abraham's bosom." In fact, the passage clearly indicates that these two places are separate and different places, and never equates the one with the other. Now, at the beginning of your a
  20. So, a question that relates to the original subject matter of the thread -- Can those in heaven observe the torment of those in hell? Revelation 14:10 -- "The same shall drink of the wine of the wrath of God, which is poured out without mixture into the cup of his indignation; and he shall be tormented with fire and brimstone in the presence of the holy angels, and in the presence of the Lamb."
  21. I understand your point, but do not agree. I believe that it was better for the translators to choose an English word (since one was available) which would encompass both meanings, even as the Greek and Hebrews words respectively encompass both meanings. In this manner they could stay closer to the Holy Spirit inspired original, and would allow the reader the opportunity to discern the meaning through the context, even as would have been required in the original. By employing the word "hell" for most of the translational cases, they accomplished just this objective. Thank you for your integ
  22. Brother DC, Although you presented this question to Brother DaChaser (whom I believe admits to being a Calvinist), and not to myself, since you and I have engaged in discussion already on the matter in this thread, I wish to answer from my perspective -- The word "saved" most basically means "to be delivered from some trouble." In relation to eternal salvation, the word "saved" would include two aspects, one a "legal" aspect, and the other a "literal" aspect. 1. Legally, to be delivered/saved from the condemnation of one's sinfulness, and thus to be delivered from the eternal
  23. Actually, this is not true. The most basic meaning for the word "hell" is "the place of the dead." This can include the grave, wherein the dead body is place, as well as the place of God's outpoured, unmixed wrath against sinful beings. As far as I am aware, however, it is never used in Scripture concerning "heaven." Although heaven is the place wherein the believing dead go, heaven itself is NOT the place of the DEAD. Rather, heaven is the place of the "LIVING." Even so, I would contend that whenever we encounter the word "hell" in Scripture, we must discern from the context wheth
  24. Brother Dave, I do agree that Matthew 24:15 speaks concerning the middle of the Tribulation Period (as per Daniel 9:27, as well as Revelation 12-13). However, I believe that the parallel passage to Matthew 24:4-14 is Luke 21:8-24; and in Luke 21:24 our Lord declared, "And they [the Israelites] shall fall by the edge of the sword, and shall be led away captive into all nations: and Jerusalem shall be trodden down of the Gentiles, until the times of the Gentiles be fulfilled." Now, I believe that "the times of the Gentiles" are primarily encompassed by the church age (as per Romans 11:25-27).
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