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Independent Fundamental Baptist
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About trell

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  • Birthday 02/10/1957

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  1. 1) The Lord said the man was 'accused'. The Lord never says he was guilty. It never says he was convicted. 2) The Lord 'commended the unjust steward'. He is called unjust, not because he was in fact unjust, but because he was 'accused' of being unjust. Would the Lord commend an unjust man? 3) What the man did was completely correct and proper in the culture. He was the steward of the household, and had every right to do what he did. 4) A steward received no salary. There was no savings plan. The master supplied his every need. 5) Who accused the steward? It was not the master. 6) There is always a possibility of being found guilty, even on false charges. What are his options if found guilty? Dig, Beg, or something else? He chooses the latter. 7) The culture of the day was such that what the alleged unjust stewart did was proper and expected by his master. 8) He stewarded the material things properly, making provision for the unseen future. The point of the parable is that we are to steward the things we are responsible for, and be looking at the future eternity, not at the hear and now as far as goods go. What comes first? Sooner or later, we will all die (unless we are alive at the return), these bodies will 'fail'. People are to properly steward the unrightous mammon.
  2. With all due respect, the 'judgement seat of Christ' is in Romans and II Corinthians, where it is bema, the judgement for rewards only, and does not pertain to the unsaved. A study of this section of I Corinthians 4 will shaow that it is speaking of our judging things now, until the Lord returns.
  3. I only use a fine point mechanical pencil to write notes. I use a numbering/lettering system reference system for such things as pneuma hagion and other words, as well as definitions, orientalisms, and figures of speech. For chronology, I use a different letter/numbering system.
  4. If you are going to use it and say Jesus said something, you need to be sure that what the editors say are the words of Jesus, really are. For example, in John 3, beginning at verse 13 and continuing up to and including verse 21, are the testimony of the writer of John, not the words of Jesus. However, this does not change the truth of what is being said, as God is the author of the Bible, regardless of who wrote it.
  5. 2348 to 2347 BC Conservative estimates put the number dead at about 5 Billion
  6. NOW I understand the question...duh. I am sometimes a bit (what an understatement that is ! ) s-l-o-w . I doubt children in the garden, because it is not recorded that they sinned, and since all sin-nature has come down from Adam, if he had had kids before the fall (the ouster), they would have been without sin. Why 'was'? Don't know for sure.
  7. God could have inspired Moses to write anything, and this is what He had him put down. Does not saying it in the past tense indicate that Adam believed these words God said, something he had been a bit remiss in, as of late?
  8. If it was before children were born, could it be because he knew what God had said in 3:16: (I will greatly multiply thy sorrow and thy conception; in sorrow thou shalt bring forth children) and because of that he knew she would be the mother of all living?
  9. This word, pais, is the same whether in the received text, or others. I can find no instance that the word is ever otherwise, in any text. The question then is one of translation. Pais is used 24 times, and is translated as follows: children - 2 times child - 5 times servant - 8 times servants - 2 times maiden - once maid - once menservants- once young man - once son - 3 times In reference to Jesus, pais is translated 'son' in Acts 3:13 and 26, 'child' in Luke 2:43, Acts 4:27 and 30. The normal word for 'son' (as in John 3:16) is huios (or whyos, depending on your training), and is used 381 times in the Bible. It is translated 'son' the vast majority of the time. Likewise, the normal word for 'servant' is doulos. As for 'boy', it is not found in the KJV except in Joel, the translators preferring 'son', since in the England of the time, 'boy' was an effeminate term. Even today, 'boy' can carry a negative connotation. Pais is a relational word, which shows the relationship between the pais and others. It may be a son or daughter as regards the law, a boy or girl as regards age, a servant or maid as regards condition. Other related diminutive words which come from pais show specific attributes of age. I could understand the translation of pais to be 'servant' if the context was emphasizing Jesus' service. I also could understand 'boy', except for the potential negative mind-picture which can accompany its' use, and I do not see age in the context. Standing Firm's comment put it in a nutshell, that God raised Jesus from the dead, and that is what is being spoken of and understood by those present, and it should be what we receive from it also. In 4:2, the religious people were upset that, among other things, Peter and John preached the resurrection of the dead. Regardless of all else, the translation to 'servant' appears to be out-of-context, inappropriate to the overall message Peter and John were presenting (which by God's grace and mercy He has given to us in this recorded account), and without merit or basis. (Mind you, I use many versions in study, so this is said from a neutral point-of-view.)
  10. The Interlinear Bible by Jay Green, Sr. Sovereign Grace Publishers, Lafayette, Indiana KJV with Strong's Concordance numbers above each word. Hebrew-Greek-English
  11. I will try to be good... Perhaps there is more than 1 church...? The church of the bride (the OT, including the gospels and Revelation), and the church of the body (the NT epistles).
  12. After I said: "Having never studied pedophilia before, could you share the scripture that pedophilia is illegal, a perversion, and sin? I cannot see the physical attraction between a child and an adult, but I can understand the devil spirits involved. And please don't assume because I ask the question that I in any way support or defend or accept such behavior or thinking. Thanks." Your question to me was: "So you have doubts that its a sin for grown ups to force their self sexually on infants, & young children?" What in my statement or question got you to consider that I have doubts? The very question you asked, and asked it by saying "So you have doubts..." insinuates I doubt. And you do not see, apparently, how that insinuates something. To me, it is not 'an innocent question' which you asked. This is the very kind of thing I was referring to when I said "When I have a question or comment, I am hesitant to ask or say much on here because some think that because a question is asked or a comment made that it infers something." My doubt, if you wish to refer to it as such, is that the Bible specifically singles it out. Whether the people in question are 2 or 102, the sin of adultery would seem to cover it. Homosexuality is covered separately because it is not adultery. If it were a woman with a girl, or a man with a boy, then homosexuality would cover it, unless there are additional verses which deal with the age of the 'participants'. To us it may seem worse, but is it, Biblically speaking, if one person is younger, and if so, how much younger? What if it was someone 8 and 48? What if they were 18 and 58? These are questions which infer nothing by me! Following this train of thought further, what age is 'inappropriate', or what determines it is sin? In the first century Middle East, the China of 50 years ago, and the USA of 100 years ago, it was normal in many areas for a girl to be married at 12, a boy at about the same age to be working a full time job. We are talking cultures, not sin, unless scripture gives a specific time or age. That being said, it is always wrong for one to force themselves on another, regardless of age. Even in a family relationship, let alone in a non-family situation. Our heavenly Father does not force us to do something. Why should anyone else?
  13. Hello, and welcome! There is a lot of variety in 'regular' Baptist churches, and there is also variety in IFB churches. Some demand you use a King James Version Bible, others suggest it. Some demand women wear dresses only. Some believe alcohol is evil, others don't. Some are very judgemental and legalistic. But the same or similar things exist in many denominations. One of the biggest differences between most Baptist churches and other churches is that most believe eternal life is eternal. Many AOG, CoG (both flavors), Pentecostal type, and such often teach that your eternal life is only eternal until you sin, then you lose that incorruptible seed. IFB churches generally teach that people are saved by God's grace rather than man's works, but some (not many though) say that if you walk away from God you were not genuinely saved to start with, thus they are similar when they do that to AOG. Just as with any people, the best way to find out is go to a few services. I would recommend Sunday AM and PM services, plus Wednesday if available. You will get a good idea of the taste of the church that way. Check each out until you find one that backs up the words they speak with what the Word of God actually says, and the leadership of the church walk according to I Cor 13 and Eph 5. I would say good luck, but it doesn't exist. So I will say God speed!
  14. You certainly do like to assume and think the worst. I never said that, nor did I insinuate it. It is wrong for anyone to force their will on another, regardless of age or gender. My question is that is there a specific place that says such actions are singled out? For example, homosexuality is specifically spelled out. Fornication is specifically spelled out. Stealing is specifically spelled out. Is this specifically spelled out? If it isn't, then what age do you draw the line? What Biblical basis is there for that? Is 12 too young, or 20, or 2? When I have a question or comment, I am hesitant to ask or say much on here because some think that because a question is asked or a comment made that it infers something. It doesn't. I use chapter and verse to decide what to believe and practice, not religion or feelings.
  15. Having never studied pedophilia before, could you share the scripture that pedophilia is illegal, a perversion, and sin? I cannot see the physical attraction between a child and an adult, but I can understand the devil spirits involved. And please don't assume because I ask the question that I in any way support or defend or accept such behavior or thinking. Thanks.

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