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  First, I don't believe one word of the KJV should be changed, as its makers are all dead. Far as I'm concerned, that'd be like changing one of Shakespeare's plays.  Being non-KJVO,  I believe there mighta been an oversight by leaving "Easter" in Acts 12:4, as the AV makers clearly knew easter from passover, as they placed an "Easter-Finder" in the KJV.  For most purposes, it shouldn't be that big a deal, as no doctrine is changed either way. The fact remains that Herod busted Peter before he could leave his bailiwick, intending to turn him over to the Jewish leadership for their disposal, but the Jews weren't ready to take  him just yet, so Herod incarcerated him.

  But I cannot find if 'pascha' meant anything but 'passover' in the  1st century AD. I know it's the Greek translateration of the Hebrew word 'p'sach', God's name for passover.

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8 hours ago, Alan said:

One of, not all, of the reasons why I said this statement was that if Jordan did not think that the word was an error or a pagan holiday, than why change it? Why? It seems to me that there is more than what meets the eye in the intentions of the linked study on why Easter should not be in Acts 14:2 than is presented in the linked study.

John Young is correct in all of his comments.

Among other problems in the study that I do not care for, the linked study has three groups of opinions. Which one is correct? What is Jordan really trying to accomplish? Should Easter be taken out out of Acts 12:4 and Passover be substituted?

Brethren,

If you really study out the issue, and check out that the newer translators are writing, and how most of the proponents of changing the "archaic" KJV version, than you will find out that once you change the word Easter for any reason, than other "archaic" words in the KJV are next in line.

As for me, I have studied every word of Jordan's linked study twice and still find it "wanting" in numerous places, leaves out important information, has three opinions as John Young brought out, and disparages the KJV translators, while praising the Coverdale edition.

Alan

Alan stop slandering me. 

On 4/8/2020 at 10:21 AM, Alan said:

I did not say that you said Easter, "... needed to be changed."

Alan, you are contradicting what you said earlier. Again. Where Did I say to change the KJV in Acts 12? 

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On 4/10/2020 at 11:02 AM, Jordan Kurecki said:

Well Alan, since this is now at least the 3rd time that I am saying the KJV is NOT in error for using Easter, and yet you continue to insist over and over to the contrary, then yes I would agree that we have no common ground to continue discussing.

Neither you nor any other reader will find anywhere in my paper where I assert that the KJV is in error, or where I question the competency of the translators or the veracity of the translation. To be quite frank I find your insistence that I am doing so to be slander Alan, you are twisting my words to make me say something that I never said. 
 
From my paper

“This does NOT however, mean that the King James Bible is in error for using the word Easter in Acts 12:4 though, as we will see.”

“Why did the King James translates use the word Easter here instead of passover in Acts 12:4?” That is what many King James Bible believers ask.
“Surely there must have been a reason?” They say.
It wasn’t because they made an error. It also wasn’t because they were trying to denote a pagan holiday. Then why did they use the word “Easter”?”

”No the King James is NOT in error by using the word Easter in Acts 12:4, but neither is Acts 12:4 a pagan holiday or Christian celebration of the passover. Easter when the King James Bible was translated, was used as a synonym for Passover, and Easter in the Acts 12:4 in the King James Bible, is simply passover.”

Error: : an act involving an unintentional deviation from truth or accuracy, an act that through ignorance, deficiency, or accident departs from or fails to achieve what should be done

Alan, I use only the King James Version and have never preached or taught from another one and I have zero plans of accepting a new English version. Whether intentional or not, you are slandering me if you are going to insist that I am “disparaging the KJV translators, casting doubt on the veracity of the KJV translation and the honestly and intellectual capacity of the translators, and is biased against the KJV. “

 

I am asking the Moderators to lock this thread. I really do not appreciate members of this board twisting my words and making me out to believe and say things that I clearly have not said nor do I believe. 

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