Members Baptistsenior Posted May 3, 2019 Members Share Posted May 3, 2019 Where did we ever get started using the word 'demon/s' when it doesn't appear in the KJV anywhere? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Administrators Jim_Alaska Posted May 3, 2019 Administrators Share Posted May 3, 2019 Probably because there is only one devil, and Scripture talks of "devils" in the plural. I could be wrong. I thought I was wrong once, but I was mistaken. No Nicolaitans and Alan 1 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members Jerry Posted May 3, 2019 Members Share Posted May 3, 2019 It is from the underlying Greek word (of devils), daimonion. John Young and Alan 2 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members Baptistsenior Posted May 4, 2019 Author Members Share Posted May 4, 2019 The newer versions use 'demon' instead of 'devils', maybe we just followed suit. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members Jerry Posted May 4, 2019 Members Share Posted May 4, 2019 Anyone studying the New Testament in Greek or using a Strong’s Concordance would sooner or later find out what the underlying word is. John Young 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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