Members Baptistsenior 23 Posted May 3, 2019 Members Report Share Posted May 3, 2019 Where did we ever get started using the word 'demon/s' when it doesn't appear in the KJV anywhere? Quote Report Link to post Share on other sites
0 Administrators Jim_Alaska 2,343 Posted May 3, 2019 Administrators Report Share Posted May 3, 2019 Probably because there is only one devil, and Scripture talks of "devils" in the plural. I could be wrong. I thought I was wrong once, but I was mistaken. Alan and No Nicolaitans 1 1 Quote Report Link to post Share on other sites
0 Independent Fundamental Baptist Jerry 148 Posted May 3, 2019 Independent Fundamental Baptist Report Share Posted May 3, 2019 It is from the underlying Greek word (of devils), daimonion. John Young and Alan 2 Quote Report Link to post Share on other sites
0 Members Baptistsenior 23 Posted May 4, 2019 Author Members Report Share Posted May 4, 2019 The newer versions use 'demon' instead of 'devils', maybe we just followed suit. Quote Report Link to post Share on other sites
0 Independent Fundamental Baptist Jerry 148 Posted May 4, 2019 Independent Fundamental Baptist Report Share Posted May 4, 2019 Anyone studying the New Testament in Greek or using a Strong’s Concordance would sooner or later find out what the underlying word is. John Young 1 Quote Report Link to post Share on other sites
Question
Baptistsenior 23
Where did we ever get started using the word 'demon/s' when it doesn't appear in the KJV anywhere?
Link to post
Share on other sites
4 answers to this question
Recommended Posts
Join the conversation
You can post now and register later. If you have an account, sign in now to post with your account.
Note: Your post will require moderator approval before it will be visible.