Members DaveW Posted December 5, 2017 Members Share Posted December 5, 2017 (edited) Joh 19:28 After this, Jesus knowing that all things were now accomplished, that the scripture might be fulfilled, saith, I thirst. Tonight at Bible institute, one of the students asked if there was a correlation between this statement of Christ on the cross and His prayer in the Garden: Mat 26:42 He went away again the second time, and prayed, saying, O my Father, if this cup may not pass away from me, except I drink it, thy will be done. I am not convinced that the link is there, but it is an interesting point to ponder. Was Jesus saying at that point on the cross, that it was time for Him to drink that cup? Just something to discuss...... Edited December 5, 2017 by DaveW Alan 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members Alan Posted December 5, 2017 Members Share Posted December 5, 2017 I feel that the cup on the cross was the dregs of sin upon His soul for the payment of our sins and the turning away of the face of the Father at that point. "My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me? why art thou so far from helping me, and from the words of my roaring? "Psalm 22:1 and Matthew 26: 46, "And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eli, Eli, la-ma sa-bach-tha-ni? that is to say, My god, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?" I feel when the Lord said, "I thirst," was that the trials of the agony of spiritual, emotional, and physical pain was at an end, and, in His humanity, that He was physically drained at that point. I am not of the persuasion that there is a correlation; but, I can see why some may think so and do not make it a point of contention. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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