Islam

[*Light*]

The god of the Quran CANNOT be the one True God, why? By definition, God has to be perfect in every way possible, and that includes PERFECT LOVE. Love is something you direct towards someone else. That is true love (e.g., I love my Father in Heaven). The God of the Quran is ONE person, therefore, he cannot have perfect love because his love is directed towards no one from eternity past. One might argue that his love can be directed towards humans. Since God is Eternal, then His love would have to be eternal. Human beings are "created", and did not exist in eternity past. So unless the god of the Quran had love towards someone in eternity past, he cannot be the true God. I created this thread so my other brothers and sisters in Christ can add to it whenever they feel like. At the same time, let's show the beauty of God's true Love.

For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life. (John 3:16)

That one word "SO" means more than many think. It doesn't say, "God loved the world", it reads, "God SO loved the world" My friend (who is muslim) keeps having a reoccurring dream where he's flying and trying to fly higher, but he can only go so far, and his strength weakens and he can't fly any higher. I asked God what that meant, and He said "He is so close, and yet so far away". My muslim friend (Hussein) just about loves all people, believes in an Almighty God, keeps the commandments, ...just the wrong God. If he can only see the truth of the Word of God and Salvation by Grace through faith, he can fly as high as he wants, and there are no limits. Muslims need to be shown the love of God.

 

God Bless,

Daniel

 

[heartstrings]

Their god cannot be about love because he rewards men by exploiting women and he condones the barbaric killing of innocent people.  Islamists concept of their god, is also fatalistic because they think that he predetermines people to paradise or Hell much the same way as the Calvinists' god does.

[Invicta]

On 24/11/2017 at 4:15 PM, (Omega) said:

For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life. (John 3:16)

 

When I was at school in the early 1950's, schools were allowed to teach scripture, unlike now.  And back in those days my teacher said that the true rendering was "Only begotten son," not just an only or even a one and only.  

Only begotten is the true rendering. 

Luke 3:38  Which was the son of Enos, which was the son of Seth, which was the son of Adam, which was the son of God.

 

[*Light*]

The word "begotten" in the King James is "monogenes" in common Greek. It is made up of 2 words, they are "mono" (one of it's kind, unique.), and "genes" (kind). Kind of like genus, where we get species from. So the KJV is basically saying that God gave His one and only Son, which cannot be duplicated. This is an indicator that Jesus is Deity. People get caught up with the title God and forget about Lord. What they fail to realize is that Lord is an equal title of Deity as God is. The word Lord in the New Testament is equal to YHVH, or the name of God Himself in the Old Testament and in the LXX Septuagint. Some have suggested that the word begotten in the KJV means to sire, or to Father. Either way, the KJV is on point and I would consider it the correct rendering, which is why I have 5 bibles, and they are all KJV. The Triunity of God is not complicated to understand at all. If you have a triangle with the word "purple" in the middle, and each side of the triangle has the word "blanket", that is an analogy to God's triune nature. The blanket has the property of being purple. If you have The Father, The Son, The Holy Spirit on each side of a triangle and have God in the middle of the triangle. It's telling us that each person has the nature of God, and if each person has the nature of God, then each person IS God. The Son has the nature of the Father, the Jews understood this well when Jesus called God HIS Father, or His own Father. This meant that He had the same nature as God Himself, making Him equal with God. When it says in the bible that God the Father MADE Jesus Lord, that doesn't mean that He wasn't Lord before. If your boss MAKES  you co-boss, then that means that you deserve that title. God, as Lord, became flesh. From His birth to His ascencion, He showed the world that He IS Lord by what He accomplished. 

Edited November 26, 2017 by (Omega)
Grammar

[Invicta]

I am not sure what you are getting at.  If you believe the KJC is correct, whey did you quote from a different version?    

[*Light*]

Interestingly enough, I'm not sure what you're getting at either. What "other" version did I quote from?

[heartstrings]

2 hours ago, (Omega) said:

Interestingly enough, I'm not sure what you're getting at either. What "other" version did I quote from?

You quoted from the NIV.

We only use the King James Bible in these forums.

[*Light*]

I didn't intentionally "quote" from the NIV. That is what the word "begotten" means in the Strong's Concordance. Any biblical scholar will tell you that the Greek word monogenes (begotten) means one of its kind, or one and only, or that which is unique. I too ONLY use the KJV, but that's not to say that you cannot expound on its meaning by paraphrasing or explaining it in its context what that word means. When a Pastor uses a KJV and cites a passage, then explains what that passage means, is he wrong because he didn't use the EXACT words in the KJV? How then can he explain to his congregation what he is trying to explain? I DO understand that this is a KJV forum, and I TRY to abide by all the rules. I despise the NIV, but that's what the word begotten means. And if you disagree, then you're ignoring what the original manuscripts say. Furthermore, the word ONLY is used before "begotten" in the KJV. So if you don't like my paraphrasing it to one and only, then I could say that begotten (monogenes) means unique. The original manuscripts does indeed say "begotten", all I was trying to do is say what begotten means in its context and according to Strong's Concordance.

Edited November 27, 2017 by (Omega)
expound

[*Light*]

And I want to make this abundantly clear. I am a KJV onlyist and ONLY quote using KJV. I have never previously ever quoted from any other version. I do however do a lot of bible study and look to the Strong's Concordance to get the etymology of it. 

[Invicta]

The KJV uses, how shall I explain it? emphatic words.  There are margin notes which sometimes give added meaning.  The MV says this MS says this and that MS says that and another MS says something else, thus undermining the Word of God.  This is the main problem I have with the NKJ.  

[heartstrings]

I don't have time to look all this up today. But I believe "mono" means "one" correct? Then doesn't "gene" come from the same word we get "genes", "genetics", "gendered" and "generate"? When you "beget" a son, your son comes from your "GENES" right?.  So God Almighty "generated", "gendered" His Son Jesus by the Holy Ghost the Bible says and His Son is the ONLY ONE.

[*Light*]

Makes sense heartstrings.

[Pastorj]

On ‎11‎/‎24‎/‎2017 at 11:15 AM, (Omega) said:

For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life. (John 3:16)

This is what was being referred to. This is not KJV

I get where you are coming from though.

[*Light*]

Thanks for understanding Pastorj. I should have re-worded it according to the KJV.