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On 4/12/2017 at 10:18 AM, Pastor Scott Markle said:

Speaking as Pastor Scott Markle, the opponent of Calvinism,

Indeed, it is an interesting subject to ponder in what manner the eternal Son of God was "foreordained" (Greek verb, "proginosko") as the Christ, the sacrificial Lamb of God, as per 1 Peter 1:18-21.

However, in the debate against Calvinistic doctrine, the word "foreordained" in 1 Peter 1:20 can create a significant difficulty for the non-Calvinist; for it would provide evidence that the Greek verb "proginosko" (which is the same Greek verb that is translated as "foreknow" in Romans 8:29) can carry the meaning of "foreordained" decisionally, as opposed to simply "foreknown" informationally, or even "foreloved" relationally.  As such, the use of the same Greek verb in Romans 8:29, translated "foreknow," could then mean "foreordained decisionally in Romans 8;29 also.  How then does the non-Calvinist deal with this problem?

By staying away from the Greek which is used many times as a backdoor attempt to correct or change what the KJV says. "Foreknow" and "Foreordained" are not the same words in the English language. Not even the same meanings in the roots of the English words. You can know someone beforehand but not ordain them to anything beforehand.

Even so, our predestination has to do with those that God knows will receive his Son as their Savior will be someday be changed (conformed) into the image of his Son. It has nothing to to with a predestination or foreordaination to being saved.

 

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38 minutes ago, SureWord said:

By staying away from the Greek . . .

Certainly I would agree that the two English words "foreordained" and "foreknown" are two completely different words with two completely different root meanings in the English.  However, my question specifically related to the Greek, wherein the SAME Greek verb is translated with both of these English words.  My intention was to indicate that the Calvinist will most certainly bring this forward in their argument, and thus we non-Calvinists should have a legitimate Biblical response.  

Now, it appears that your response to this matter would simply be -- The Greek does not matter at all, only the English.  However, I myself would have a problem with this response.  I would ask -- Was the Greek directly inspired by God the Holy Spirit, such that He directly moved the penmen to write precisely the Greek words that He intended?  If the answer to this question is "yes," then I would further ask -- Why would I want to cast aside and stay away from that which God the Holy Spirit directly inspired? 

Furthermore, I would ask -- Was the English in the Authorized King James translation directly inspired by God the Holy Spirit, such that He directly moved the translators to choose precisely the English words the He intended?  If your answer is "yes," then it would appear that you hold to "double inspiration," to which I would ask wherein God's Word supports the doctrine of "double inspiration" unto a translation, and that specifically in the English language.  If your answer is "no," then I would ask -- Why would I want to cast aside and stay away from that which God the Holy Spirit directly inspired (in the Greek), and only consider that which is translated from it, but is not directly inspired by God the Holy Spirit?

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1 hour ago, Scott Lyons said:

Want an eye opener on just how evil MacArthur and his schools are? Read this! http://www.brentdetwiler.com/brentdetwilercom/the-account-of-john-macarthur-rick-hollands-horrific-handlin.html

14And no marvel; for Satan himself is transformed into an angel of light. 15Therefore it is no great thing if his ministers also be transformed as the ministers of righteousness; whose end shall be according to their works.

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On 2/21/2017 at 9:52 PM, Jim_Alaska said:

OK, if Bro. Dave will not "rag on MacArthur" I will. I will also disagree with Bro. Dave where he said that MacArthur needs to be taken very carefully. I don't think he should be "taken" at all. MacArthur is and promotes Community Church. I mean this in the sense of a denomination, not something like a Community Baptist church.

He is not Baptist and I would discourage any Baptist brethren from reading after him at all.

He is a calvinist Baptist, as I am, and wehile do not agree with all of his theology, is very sound compared to much out there!

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3 minutes ago, Yeshuafan said:

He is a calvinist Baptist, as I am, and wehile do not agree with all of his theology, is very sound compared to much out there!

I read that D-Con had 99.5% good wholesome food, while only .5% of it was rat poison.    

2 Corinthians 11: 14And no marvel; for Satan himself is transformed into an angel of light. 15Therefore it is no great thing if his ministers also be transformed as the ministers of righteousness; whose end shall be according to their works.

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On 11/17/2020 at 12:34 PM, heartstrings said:

I read that D-Con had 99.5% good wholesome food, while only .5% of it was rat poison.    

2 Corinthians 11: 14And no marvel; for Satan himself is transformed into an angel of light. 15Therefore it is no great thing if his ministers also be transformed as the ministers of righteousness; whose end shall be according to their works.

None have perfect theology, as none are inspired, but he is one of the very best today!

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On 7/1/2020 at 2:00 PM, SureWord said:

By staying away from the Greek which is used many times as a backdoor attempt to correct or change what the KJV says. "Foreknow" and "Foreordained" are not the same words in the English language. Not even the same meanings in the roots of the English words. You can know someone beforehand but not ordain them to anything beforehand.

Even so, our predestination has to do with those that God knows will receive his Son as their Savior will be someday be changed (conformed) into the image of his Son. It has nothing to to with a predestination or foreordaination to being saved.

 

Predestination in the Bible always refers to the status of the Elect in Christ, not to the status of the lost!

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