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Qualifications for Pastor and Deacon


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Question for everyone here.  A man is married to his first and only wife, they have multiple children together.  The wife however was previously married to another man.  Would the wife's previous marriage and divorce make the man disqualified from being a Pastor or Deacon?  

If the marriage took place before the man was saved would this effect the situation in anyway?  

If it is said that the man is not qualified because he is not blameless, what constitutes one being blameless?

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Question for everyone here.  A man is married to his first and only wife, they have multiple children together.  The wife however was previously married to another man.  Would the wife's previous marriage and divorce make the man disqualified from being a Pastor or Deacon?  

If the marriage took place before the man was saved would this effect the situation in anyway?  

If it is said that the man is not qualified because he is not blameless, what constitutes one being blameless?

Brother Adam,

I would present that the answer to your above questioning will be directly affected by the following two points --

1.  What is the relationship between remarriage and the sin of adultery?
2.  What is the relationship between the sin of adultery and the qualification for pastoral leadership (specifically in relation to the qualification of "blameless")?

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Brother Adam,

I would present that the answer to your above questioning will be directly affected by the following two points --

1.  What is the relationship between remarriage and the sin of adultery?
2.  What is the relationship between the sin of adultery and the qualification for pastoral leadership (specifically in relation to the qualification of "blameless")?

Pastor Markle,

That is pretty much what it comes down to.  Matt 19:9 says if a man marries a divorced woman he has committed adultery.  So does that violate the pastoral qualification of being blameless?  What does and does not violate the qualification of being blameless?  What sins can be committed and one still be blameless?  I understand it doesn't say sinless, but where is the line drawn?

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Brother AdamL,

I myself would indeed apply Matthew 19:9 to my point #1 above.  In addition, I would apply Proverbs 6:32-35 to my point #2 above --

"But whoso committeth adultery with a woman lacketh understanding: he that doeth it destroyeth his own soul.  A wound and dishonour shall he get; and his reproach shall not be wiped away.  For jealousy is the rage of a man: therefore he will not spare in the day of vengeance.  He will not regard any ransom; neither will he rest content, though thou givest many gifts."

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Brother AdamL,

I myself would indeed apply Matthew 19:9 to my point #1 above.  In addition, I would apply Proverbs 6:32-35 to my point #2 above --

"But whoso committeth adultery with a woman lacketh understanding: he that doeth it destroyeth his own soul.  A wound and dishonour shall he get; and his reproach shall not be wiped away.  For jealousy is the rage of a man: therefore he will not spare in the day of vengeance.  He will not regard any ransom; neither will he rest content, though thou givest many gifts."

That is a valid point.  All of us in our unsaved lives lacked understanding.  

So basically if a man commits adultery at anytime during his life, saved or unsaved, he will wear that badge for the rest of his life and be permanently disqualified?

Would this also apply for a man that looks at a woman andlusts and commits adultery with her in his heart? (Matt 5:28)

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That is a valid point.  All of us in our unsaved lives lacked understanding.  

So basically if a man commits adultery at anytime during his life, saved or unsaved, he will wear that badge for the rest of his life and be permanently disqualified?

That the reproach will never be removed appears to be the truth of Proverbs 6:33.

Would this also apply for a man that looks at a woman andlusts and commits adultery with her in his heart? (Matt 5:28)

Taking Proverbs 6:32-35 as my authority for saying that adultery with a woman creates a permanent reproach, I would from that same authority contend that the sin of lust (adultery in one's heart) is not the application of Proverbs 6:32-35.  Proverbs 6:32-35 seems to set its focus upon physical adultery, for it makes significant reference to the woman's husband -- that he will be jealous (and rightly so), that he "will not spare in the day of vengeance," that he will not be appeased by any ransom, that he "will not rest content."  (Even so, I would also contend that this passage is not speaking concerning the sin of formication before marriage.)

Edited by Pastor Scott Markle
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Taking Proverbs 6:32-35 as my authority for saying that adultery with a woman creates a permanent reproach, I would from that same authority contend that the sin of lust (adultery in one's heart) is not the application of Proverbs 6:32-35Proverbs 6:32-35 seems to set its focus upon physical adultery, for it makes significant reference to the woman's husband -- that he will be jealous (and rightly so), that he "will not spare in the day of vengeance," that he will be appeased by any ransom, that he "will not rest content."  (Even so, I would also contend that this passage is not speaking concerning the sin of formication before marriage.)

So if it is only done in the heart and only you and God know about it, you can repent and confess it and you will be forgiven and cleansed from unrighteousness.

But if a man marries a woman that has been divorced he will wear that badge forever and be the cause of jealousy and vengeance on the part of the ex husband?  Who may in fact not even know if she has married again or not.

If we are talking about a situation where a man comes into my house or meets my wife somewhere and they commit adultery then that makes sense.  But not really in the case of marrying a woman that has been divorced.

 

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So here's a question to throw a wrinkle in the analysis. What was the reason for the wife's divorce from the previous marriage? If it was due to the previous husband's infidelity, the marriage covenant has been voided and she is free from him if she so chooses. Similarly, if the previous husband was an unbeliever and faith was a part of why he divorced her, she is free to remarry (1 Cor 7:14-15). I would assert that in either of these cases the new husband remains blameless and qualified. However, if they simply divorced due to "irreconcilable differences" (I hate that term...), then I agree with the above reasoning.

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I think another thought to bring to bear is the extent of "blameless", which properly means "not open to censure" or "irreproachable." Is that blameless/irreproachable before God or before man? If before God, then no man is qualified to be a pastor or deacon. If before man, then I would think the summation principle of a good report (1 Tim 3:7) would highlight the man's current behavior and acceptance. Example: a man who was previously given to wine, but now practices abstinence would not be disqualified. In application to this specific question, does the man's current testimony make him beyond reproach? Or does people's knowledge of his wife's previous marriage taint his ability to be an example?

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Romans 7:2 (KJV) 2 For the woman which hath an husband is bound by the law to [her] husband so long as he liveth; but if the husband be dead, she is loosed from the law of [her] husband.

Romans 7:3 (KJV) 3 So then if, while [her] husband liveth, she be married to another man, she shall be called an adulteress: but if her husband be dead, she is free from that law; so that she is no adulteress, though she be married to another man.

 

Why would adulterer be a label never to be removed from a man, (Proverbs 6:32-35) yet an adulteress loses her label once her husband dies? (Romans 7:2-3)

 

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I think the same line of reasoning using the present tense since all the quals are written in the present tense means he must meet all the quals at the time of consideration and ordination and he must maintain all the quals to remain qualified.

If that is the case (which it is) and multiple wives was a common practice then and is still today in many parts of the world, why would one consider all the quals as in their clearly written present tense but then apply "for all their life, even before salvation" the qual of one wife?? Makes no sense to me and has probably been the man made roadblock for many truly called of God. Who knows the great soulwinning growth many IFB churches could have had or still have if this misinterpretation was never made.

Strange how we have made up the idea that a Pastor can only give Godly counsel to their church if they have only had one marriage their whole life. "How can he counsel our marriage if he has had troubled marriages in the past". Well here is a better question if experience is the only way to gain knowledge, how can that same pastor give proper counsel to the divorced if he has never felt the pain or shame of it? I say the same thing I say to people with no children who want to give parental advice; "you don't know and you will never know so keep your information to yourself" What I need is knowledge, not information; I can get information anywhere.

I think most IFBs have greatly erred with this misinterpretation. But just my opinion dealing with the context of the qualifications as written.

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I gotta say that someone who's troubled marriage ended in divorce probably doesn't have a great track record of experience for counseling couples through a troubled marriage to unity.

Or perhaps they have a far better view to provide advice, having lived through all aspects of marriage, divorce, parenting, etc.

Ever have anyone try to give you advice authoritatively who had no experience in the subject and you thought to yourself "this person is clueless"?

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Or perhaps they have a far better view to provide advice, having lived through all aspects of marriage, divorce, parenting, etc.

Ever have anyone try to give you advice authoritatively who had no experience in the subject and you thought to yourself "this person is clueless"?

That's what I mean. If the guy couldn't figure out how to keep his own marriage intact, why should I expect him to give me good advice for mine? He might have something to say in the 'this didn't work' department, but he's hardly qualified to comment on what does work. 

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That's what I mean. If the guy couldn't figure out how to keep his own marriage intact, why should I expect him to give me good advice for mine? He might have something to say in the 'this didn't work' department, but he's hardly qualified to comment on what does work. 

One spouse can do all the right things (not likely, but let's stay they try and come close) and yet the other spouse can reject it and still go the wrong way.

Unfortunately, it's not all that uncommon for a pastor's wife to tire of being a pastor's wife, tire of "sharing" her husband with God and others, tire of feeling like she has to live up to a godly standard, tire of the "restricted" life of a pastor's wife, and decide she doesn't want to be married to him any more. Often this decision to leave her husband comes after an extended time of "faking it", putting on a show of being a good pastor's wife and Christian in public while having already drifted away in her heart and considering, then planning and finally acting upon what appears to the husband/pastor and others a sudden decision to leave.

If a spouse turns from following God and decides to follow the world, the flesh and the devil, it often doesn't matter how perfect the other spouse may have been or how well they try to deal with the situation, that leaving spouse is determined to go no matter what.

Beyond that, a good pastor will base his marriage counseling upon the Word of God. Personal experience only serves as anecdotes and examples. A newly married pastor, grounded in the Word, should be able to give proper marriage counseling based upon the Word even without having 20 years of married life experience.

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