Members heartstrings Posted May 12, 2015 Members Share Posted May 12, 2015 No. He wasn't sloppy at all;He used "Bene Elohym" (sons of God) to describe the individuals in Genesis 6, but did not use any of the Hebrew words for "angels". http://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/Lexicon/Lexicon.cfm?strongs=H4397&t=KJV or http://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/Lexicon/Lexicon.cfm?strongs=G32&t=KJV Heir of Salvation 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members Heir of Salvation Posted May 13, 2015 Members Share Posted May 13, 2015 There are those who would imply that God is "sloppy" with His Hebrew linguistics, and He said "this" when what He really meant was "that".Huh?Who is implying God is "sloppy"??God is 'sloppy' with his linguistics? What does that mean? I didn't know God used "linguistics" at all. Does God "have" linguistics?God knows and always knew exactly what he wanted to say, and exactly how he wanted to say it. That's all there is to it.What are you driving at? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members beameup Posted May 13, 2015 Members Share Posted May 13, 2015 (edited) If God wanted to be crystal-clear, He could have written "daughters of Cain" and "sons of Seth", to back-up the 4th Century Catholic Sethite "interpretation" of godly men joining with ungodly women.Since "bene" is used to describe "followers" of prophets, then "bene" does not necessarily mean "blood related sons". Edited May 13, 2015 by beameup Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members DaveW Posted May 13, 2015 Members Share Posted May 13, 2015 If God wanted to be crystal-clear, He could have written "daughters of Cain" and "sons of Seth", to back-up the 4th Century Catholic Sethite "interpretation" of godly men joining with ungodly women.Since "bene" is used to describe "followers" of prophets, then "bene" does not necessarily mean "blood related sons".He could likewise have used one of the words for angels. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Moderators Ukulelemike Posted May 13, 2015 Moderators Share Posted May 13, 2015 According to the Bible, God "maketh his angels spirits", (Ps 104:4; Heb 1:7) Angels, though they may take on the appearance of flesh at times, are spirit-God made them such. To think that they can move outside of their nature at will, and somehow mate with flesh, is impossible. They are of a different kind of creature from humans-they cannot procreate. If God made them spirits, how could we believe they would even have the plumbing? maybe under their robes they are like a Ken doll-no need for the parts of they don't have the need to use them as we do. And so to think that a fallen angel, a devil, could somehow take to themselves a nature that God didn't give them is preposterous. Standing Firm In Christ and Genevanpreacher 2 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members MountainChristian Posted May 13, 2015 Members Share Posted May 13, 2015 nephilim = fallen angels = Aliens No Nicolaitans 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members heartstrings Posted May 14, 2015 Members Share Posted May 14, 2015 ben 'elohiym In Job 1:6 if the sons of God are praying, that would mean Satan is praying.yatsab or present is never translated prayer, offerings, and supplicationHebrews makes your strongest point.Another thought if Angels breed with women, does that mean all Angels are male? Also if Angels do not reproduce by breeding why have reproductive organs?A horse and a donkey can produce a mule. Mules can not reproduce. These giants could reproduce and formed a country called Anak.God had a conversation with "the devil" here....Matthew 4: 1Then was Jesus led up of the Spirit into the wilderness to be tempted of the devil. 2And when he had fasted forty days and forty nights, he was afterward an hungred. 3And when the tempter came to him, he said, If thou be the Son of God, command that these stones be made bread. 4But he answered and said, It is written, Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God. God had another two-way conversation with "devils" here....Matthew 8:28 And when he was come to the other side into the country of the Gergesenes, there met him two possessed with devils, coming out of the tombs, exceeding fierce, so that no man might pass by that way.29 And, behold, they cried out, saying, What have we to do with thee, Jesus, thou Son of God? art thou come hither to torment us before the time?30 And there was a good way off from them an herd of many swine feeding.31 So the devils besought him, saying, If thou cast us out, suffer us to go away into the herd of swine.32 And he said unto them, Go. MountainChristian 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members MountainChristian Posted May 14, 2015 Members Share Posted May 14, 2015 Amen brother Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members Heir of Salvation Posted May 15, 2015 Members Share Posted May 15, 2015 (edited) If God wanted to be crystal-clear, He could have written "daughters of Cain" and "sons of Seth",But, that isn't the doctrine.The idea is that all men were indiscriminate.Some "Sons of Seth" married some "Daughters of Cain".... but, similarly, some "Sons of Cain" also married some "Daughters of Seth".It isn't as strictly related to bloodlines as you might think.....it's like everything else in the apocalypse...they were "Marrying" and also..."Giving in Marriage". There was no separation betwixt the Righteous and unrighteous...it was catch as catch can....Whole world of difference. God didn't say what you think he should say, because that isn't the doctrine.Since "bene" is used to describe "followers" of prophets, then "bene" does not necessarily mean "blood related sons". Yes, it does mean "blood related sons". It always does."Bene" means.."Son" or "Descendent" always...DENOTATIVELY...some words have CONOTATIVE meanings as well....Much like the title of the Movie "Band of Brothers"....is meaningful.Do you mean to tell me that you believe a war movie title like: "Band of Brothers" redefines the word "Brother"??No, you know that there is a CONOTATIVE meaning, in that context, which only plays upon the DENOTATIVE meaning.It's a "true" and meaningful use of the word "brother"....but, it makes use of the power of words to define an idea.Last I checked...(and I could be off some) there are roughly 6,000 words in the English Language...There are about 1,500 words total in Biblical Hebrew (something like 15% of the total verbiage) ...so....can you forgive it for not looking ahead 4,000 years to your personal linguistic mores'?The Old Testament Hebrew was designed to carry significance, to people on more than three continents, Throughout 5 world-dominating Empires, be relatable for 4,500 years, cover periods from ancient polytheism and Gaia Worship, to the Hellenistic age and the Polytheism of Both Greek Platonism and early Roman Polytheism. and be meaningful to WAY more people than YOU.....You have at your personal disposal the words "sear", "cauterize", and "burn"....Hebrew has ONE word for all three.You have at your disposal the words "infant", "toddler, "child", "youth", "adolescent" and (the somewhat dated word) "suckling".Hebrew has, at it's disposal, the word "Naar" ....which can describe everything from David standing up to Goliath, to describing his wicked son Absalom, AFTER he was old enough to sleep with his father's concubines.... (yes post-pubescent). That is what it has to work with...So, don't assume what a language with 15% of the words you have at your disposal, (all of which are less than 500 years old) should do to reach 4,500 years of human history affecting 5 world-wide empires should say or not say....It's a BEAUTIFUL language...GORGEOUS...The word "Hallelujah" is indescribably Divine... I could probably go on and on, about how that word has dominated human history from Abraham down to the greatest English-speaking composers for over 6,000 years....But it doesn't necessarily "say" what Beam-me-up thinks it should say....forgive it.Do you think that you could forgive God for not being an Anglophile?? Edited May 15, 2015 by Heir of Salvation Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members Genevanpreacher Posted May 16, 2015 Members Share Posted May 16, 2015 The word "Hallelujah" is indescribably Divine... I could probably go on and on, about how that word has dominated human history from Abraham down to the greatest English-speaking composers for over 6,000 years....You do realize that word is not in the KJB? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members beameup Posted May 16, 2015 Members Share Posted May 16, 2015 Did angels eat with Abraham? When those same angels went to Sodom, did the men of Sodom desire to have sex with them.Pastor? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members beameup Posted May 16, 2015 Members Share Posted May 16, 2015 You do realize that the "Sethite" view of Genesis is a Catholic doctrine from the 4th Century... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members Rebecca Posted May 16, 2015 Members Share Posted May 16, 2015 You do realize that word is not in the KJB?It is, it's just spelled differently. Revelation 19:1-6 Alleluia = Hallelujah heartstrings and Alan 2 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members heartstrings Posted May 16, 2015 Members Share Posted May 16, 2015 You do realize that the "Sethite" view of Genesis is a Catholic doctrine from the 4th Century...The Catholics also have their own concept of a "church", "communion", a "cross", a "Jesus", "saints", "bishops" and they call themselves "Chirstians"...should we deny all of those things too, just because the Catholics claim them? No Nicolaitans 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members Heir of Salvation Posted May 16, 2015 Members Share Posted May 16, 2015 (edited) You do realize that the "Sethite" view of Genesis is a Catholic doctrine from the 4th Century... Yes, about that time they were codifying the Triune nature of the God-head, the hypostatic union, the bodily Resurrection of Jesus Christ, the 2nd coming of Christ and the final judgement. https://yourlogicalfallacyis.com/genetic Edited May 16, 2015 by Heir of Salvation Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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