Easter

[LindaR]

​The days of unleavened bread was a 7 day celebration which included passover. Is it so hard to think that Easter couldn't have fallen during the 7 days of unleavened bread?

Of course it could; Easter still continues to occur during passover on occasion.

It makes more sense to me to see two celebrations...especially considering that the Bible explicitly refers to the days of unleavened bread and Easter in the same portion of scripture. 

 

​Unleavened bread FOLLOWED Passover, according to Leviticus 23:5-6:

Leviticus 23:5 In the fourteenth day of the first month at even is the LORD'S passover.
Leviticus 23:6 And on the fifteenth day of the same month is the feast of unleavened bread unto the LORD: seven days ye must eat unleavened bread.

The Easter of Acts 12:4 occurred after the Passover. We know this because Acts 12:3 says it was "the days of unleavened bread."  The feast of unleavened bread followed the Passover (Numbers 28:16-25), but this Easter was after the feast of unleavened bread. It refers to a pagan holiday, probably the celebration of Tammuz, the sun god (Jack Moorman, Easter or Passover?).   (Way of Life Encyclopedia - Easter) 

Acts 12:3 And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.)

You might not agree entirely with this article from Jewish Awareness Ministries, but it brings to light some interesting points:

PASSOVER, EASTER, AND THE EARLY CHURCH (Israel's Messenger, March 19, 2013)

This ministry uses the King James Bible, but one of the responses to a comment I posted was interesting, to say the least.

[Jordan Kurecki]

​Unleavened bread FOLLOWED Passover, according to Leviticus 23:5-6:

Leviticus 23:5 In the fourteenth day of the first month at even is the LORD'S passover.
Leviticus 23:6 And on the fifteenth day of the same month is the feast of unleavened bread unto the LORD: seven days ye must eat unleavened bread.

The Easter of Acts 12:4 occurred after the Passover. We know this because Acts 12:3 says it was "the days of unleavened bread."  The feast of unleavened bread followed the Passover (Numbers 28:16-25), but this Easter was after the feast of unleavened bread. It refers to a pagan holiday, probably the celebration of Tammuz, the sun god (Jack Moorman, Easter or Passover?).   (Way of Life Encyclopedia - Easter) 

Acts 12:3 And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.)

You might not agree entirely with this article from Jewish Awareness Ministries, but it brings to light some interesting points:

PASSOVER, EASTER, AND THE EARLY CHURCH (Israel's Messenger, March 19, 2013)

This ministry uses the King James Bible, but one of the responses to a comment I posted was interesting, to say the least.

​Eze_45:21  In the first month, in the fourteenth day of the month, ye shall have the passover, a feast of seven days; unleavened bread shall be eaten. 

 

People always seem to forget this verses, where passover is referred to as the whole seven days.

 

So the argument from Numbers 28 is weak support for it being a Pagan holiday.

[Jordan Kurecki]

When it says after Easter, it's pretty obvious that Herod was waiting until after the 7 days of unleavened bread, or as Ezekiel 45:21 refers to it, Passover.

This a typical example of where Independent Fundamental Baptist turn into Parrots without doing a hard look at something and comparing scripture with scripture.

Personally I think Easter is just a synonym for Passover here, I think this may very well be a word God had translated to be a stumblingblock to the scoffer and skeptic of the scriptures.

[No Nicolaitans]

​Unleavened bread FOLLOWED Passover, according to Leviticus 23:5-6:

Leviticus 23:5 In the fourteenth day of the first month at even is the LORD'S passover.
Leviticus 23:6 And on the fifteenth day of the same month is the feast of unleavened bread unto the LORD: seven days ye must eat unleavened bread.

The Easter of Acts 12:4 occurred after the Passover. We know this because Acts 12:3 says it was "the days of unleavened bread."  The feast of unleavened bread followed the Passover (Numbers 28:16-25), but this Easter was after the feast of unleavened bread. It refers to a pagan holiday, probably the celebration of Tammuz, the sun god (Jack Moorman, Easter or Passover?).   (Way of Life Encyclopedia - Easter) 

Acts 12:3 And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.)

You might not agree entirely with this article from Jewish Awareness Ministries, but it brings to light some interesting points:

PASSOVER, EASTER, AND THE EARLY CHURCH (Israel's Messenger, March 19, 2013)

This ministry uses the King James Bible, but one of the responses to a comment I posted was interesting, to say the least.

​You're right. I mentioned that I was working from memory...I knew that Unleavened Bread followed immediately after Passover; that's why I said it was part of it. Bad choice of wording on my part. Sorry for any confusion.

[No Nicolaitans]

When it says after Easter, it's pretty obvious that Herod was waiting until after the 7 days of unleavened bread, or as Ezekiel 45:21 refers to it, Passover.

This a typical example of where Independent Fundamental Baptist turn into Parrots without doing a hard look at something and comparing scripture with scripture.

Personally I think Easter is just a synonym for Passover here, I think this may very well be a word God had translated to be a stumblingblock to the scoffer and skeptic of the scriptures.

​Ezekiel 45 is describing the future...not the past or the (then) present. God clearly made a distinction between Passover and Unleavened Bread.

[No Nicolaitans]

​Ezekiel 45 is describing the future...not the past or the (then) present. God clearly made a distinction between Passover and Unleavened Bread.

​Wouldn't let me edit it...

It's describing the future when Christ reigns. 

[Genevanpreacher]

Wierd. Can't Figure this paste out, but here is what I found that was interesting to me...

Pre-1611 English BiblesUse of "Easter" and "Passover"

While the word "Easter" had been used since the seventh century to refer to the celebration of Christ's resurrection, William Tyndale, in his 1525 translation of the NT (which was the first English translation from the Greek) was the first to translate the Greek word "pascha" as "ester".

In addition, Tyndale was the first person to use the word "Passover", which he did in his 1530 translation of the OT Pentateuch by translating "pecach" as "Passover".

• Martin Luther translated "pascha" as "ostern" (Osterlamm, Osterfest, Fest) in his 1522 German NT, but transliterated "pecach" in the OT as "Passah" (using ostern etc. just three times).^[14a]

Prior to Tyndale, Bible translators had generally transliterated "pecach" and "pascha" (with the Greek "pascha" itself being a transliteration of the Hebrew "pecach")

• Jerome, in the Latin Vulgate (405 AD), transliterated "pecach" as "phrase" ** and used "pascha" un-translated **
• Wycliffe (1384 AD), in the first English translation (from the Latin), used several terms for "pecach" ** but transliterated "pascha" as "pask" ** (paske)

Tyndale translated pascha as ester (or ester lambe, ester fest) 26 of the 29 times it appears in the NT.^[14b] Later English translations also used ester (Easter), but reduced its use (substituting "passover").

• The 1539 Great Bible (Cranmer) used passover (passe-ouer) 14 times and Easter or Ester 15 times^[14c] (see below)
• The 1557 Geneva Bible used Easter several times, but
  • the 1560 eliminated its use and used passover ("Paffeouer") all 29 times.
• The 1568 Bishops' Bible (the base text for the KJV) used Easter only three times (twice in John 11:55 and in Acts 12:4)
• The 1611 KJV used Easter only once, in Acts 12:4
  • The charge (translation rule) given to the KJV translators included this: "The ordinary Bible read in the church, commonly called the Bishops' Bible, to be followed, and as little altered as the Truth of the original will permit."^[15]
  • As such, in Acts 12:4, it appears the KJV translators themselves did not translate pascha as Easter, they simply did not alter the Bishops' translation (which goes back to Tyndale/Luther) - in accordance with their charge.

[John Young]

The word is christian and not pagan in origin. Easter is the English word for Pacha. This link is pretty good on dealing with the miss conceptions and myths people tend to believe about the word and the event known as Easter: http://www.kjvtoday.com/home/easter-or-passover-in-acts-124

Edited April 1, 2015 by John Young