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An Important Question


Donald

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Or at least, what I consider an important question(that shouldn’t even have to be asked).

The other day, I hard a preacher say from behind a pulpit, that “Jesus could have sinned in the wilderness, but that He chose not to”, then he seemed surprised when he didn’t hear any amens.

Well after the service, I called him on it and his response was, “...well if Jesus couldn’t have sinned, than why tempt Him at all; After all He was half man.” Then I corrected him be stating that Jesus was “all man and all God”!
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Now, I think I do have some Scripture to nail this guy with next time I see Him; Even though there is not any Scripture that actually say, that “Jesus could not sin”.

Am I missing something; “Am I living in a bubble about my perception of Jesus Christ”?
 

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Neither one of you is right nor wrong. How bout dat? I think Scripture as a whole supports both lines of reason and noone on this planet can know for sure like most forum debates.

 

Hardly logical to make Jesus the Son of Man and Judge of all mankind if He were tempted in all points, yet impossible to sin. The Word says "without sin", He is called the second Adam in this sense and Adam sinned even though not created with a sin nature. The Son of Man was born without a sin nature being conceived of the Spirit but Adam's example proves a sin nature is not a requirement to rebel against God.

 

The "let this cup pass from me but not my will but Thine be done" and the great drops of blood sweat would make little sense had it been impossible.

 

But as John81 says, leave it in the Lord's hands, He can do whatever He pleases of course.

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I think the "all man" aspect of Christ made it possible for Him to sin, but the "All God" is what made it possible for Him NOT to sin. For the rest of us, we have ALL sinned, but Jesus alone could NOT sin, being God though apparently He COULD have sinned, being man.

 

edit: But I wouldn't be dogmatic on that, not having specifically studied into the subject, per se.

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When I was in college some 20+ years ago, I was required to write a Biblical research paper for a theology class on this very subject.  At that time, my conclusion was that If you absolutely forced me to choose a side in this argument (which was indeed the case in the class requirement), I would lean toward the position that Jesus the Christ, God born in human flesh, was not able to commit sin.  This leaning was based solely upon His absolutely divine nature.  However, my greater conclusion at that time for my paper was that this question is not the truly important question that is answered by the teaching of God's Holy Word.  God's Holy Word does not truly deal with the question whether our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ, God the Son, could or could not have committed sinned.  Rather, God's Holy Word deals with (and does so with great clarity and great emphasis) the question whether our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ, God the Son, did or did not actually commit sin.  This is the truly important matter!  Whether our Lord Jesus Christ could have committed sin is somewhat irrelevant when we recognize the Biblical truth that although He was indeed tempted in all points like as we are, ye HE DID NOT COMMIT SIN!!! (See Hebrews 4:15, etc.)

 

Now, as to the logic behind the argument whether our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ, God the Son born in human flesh, could or could not commit sin, it is as follows:

 

1.  God the Son was (and is) absolutely divine in every aspect of His nature from eternity past.

2.  God the Son was born in human flesh to be made in the likeness of mankind, so that He became God in human flesh.

     a.  As such, God the Son, the Lord Jesus Christ, from that moment was (and is) 100% divine and 100% hum in His nature.

     b.  As such, God the Son, the Lord Jesus Christ, possessed the same perfectly pure human nature as the first Adam had before Adam committed sin.

     c.  As such, God the Son, the Lord Jesus Christ, did not possess the sinfully corrupted nature that Adam acquired when he committed his first sin and that

          all humans acquire at conception as the spiritual descendants of sinful Adam.

 

On the ground of these truths, the sequence of logic that proceeds:

 

1.  Jesus the Christ, God the Son, was (and is) 100% God in nature.

2.  God by very nature cannot commit sin.

Therefore -- Jesus the Christ, God the Son, as 100% God in nature could not by nature commit sin.

 

This logical process seems quite solid at the first.  Furthermore, because this logical process involves the doctrinal truth that our Lord Jesus Christ as God the Son was (and is) 100% God in nature, those who stand on the side that our Lord Jesus Christ could not commit sin will generally declare that the other side (the position that He could have committed sin) undermines the doctrine of His absolute deity.  However, in my opinion the above logic and position (although it is the side to which I would lean if you absolutely forced me to choose sides) has a significant weakness.  The weakness is that the exact same human logic could be employed to conclude that our Lord Jesus Christ could not have been tempted unto sin -- as follows:

 

1.  Jesus the Christ, God the Son, was (and is) 100% God in nature.

2.  God by very nature cannot be tempted unto sin. (See James 1:13)

Therefore -- Jesus the Christ, God the Son, as 100% God in nature could not by nature be tempted unto sin.

 

Yet the teaching of God's Holy Word stands in direct contradiction to this logical conclusion.  Even so, if this specific process of human logic could be wrong on this point whether our Lord Jesus Christ could or could not have been tempted unto sin, I am brought to wonder if it might not also be wrong on the above point whether our Lord Jesus Christ could or could not have committed sin.

 

Yet again, however, I would contend that it does not truly matter whether or not he could have sinned.  What truly matters is that He DID NOT sin!

 

 

On the other hand, this does reveal some of the weaknesses of human logic in this matter.

 

1.  Human logic cannot truly fathom the realities of God the Son's incarnation as God born in human flesh, wherein He was 100% divine and 100% human in

     a single, absolutely unified nature.

2.  Human logic in the realm of philosophical theology (as opposed to Biblical theology) often seeks to answer questions for the Lord our God does not give  

     an answer in His Holy Word.

 

(Note: If someone desire to know more of what I mean be "philosophical theology" as opposed to "Biblical theology," I am willing to discuss it more.  However, that discussion was not the central point of this posting; therefore, I did not elaborate thereon.)

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And if Jesus contained the pure, sinless nature of Adam, we must remember, Adam did, indeed, sin-thus, if you are correct in this assumption, then the possibility of sin was still there, as it was in Adam, but the ability to literally NOT sin was present, being all God, and thus, He did not. Otherwise, how could He have been tempted in all point as we, if He cannot be tempted to sin?

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Titus 1:2King James Version (KJV)
In hope of eternal life, which God, that cannot lie, promised before the world began;

 

 

James 1:13King James Version (KJV)
13 Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man:
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Titus 1:2King James Version (KJV)
In hope of eternal life, which God, that cannot lie, promised before the world began;

 

 

James 1:13King James Version (KJV)
13 Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man:

 

And yet heb 4:15 says, "For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as [we are, yet] without sin."  So how are we to take this? An inconsistency? Error? Lie?

 

Of course not. Again., I believe it has to do with Jesus while in the flesh-Does God get tired? No. But Jesus did. Does God get hungry? No, but Jesus did. Does God sleep? No, but apparently Jesus did. Can God die? Certainly not, and yet, Jesus did. So, we must ask, can God be tempted with evil? No, and yet...you got it, the Bible says He was tempted in all points like as we-are we not tempted with evil? So Jesus, as a man, in flesh, as servant, must as well have been tempted by evil. Its just, for Him, it was not temptation, for also being God, He had the power not to sin, or rather, to be sinless.

 

This is the mystery of godliness, isn't it? That God was manifest in the flesh. If He could not feel and experience our pains and temptations, how then could He be  said to be touched by the feeling of our infirmities? This is the very thing that sends JW's into a tizzy-they cannot discern how God could be man, how Creator could be creature, how Almighty God could be frail man. How master could be servant. And how He that can't be tempted of evil, way nonetheless tempted in all points as we are. I don't understand it, I just believe it.

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And yet heb 4:15 says, "For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as [we are, yet] without sin."  So how are we to take this? An inconsistency? Error? Lie?

 

 I don't understand it, I just believe it.

 

Amen!

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Titus 1:2King James Version (KJV)
In hope of eternal life, which God, that cannot lie, promised before the world began;

 

 

James 1:13King James Version (KJV)
13 Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man:

 

 

 

And yet heb 4:15 says, "For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as [we are, yet] without sin."  So how are we to take this? An inconsistency? Error? Lie?

 

Of course not. Again., I believe it has to do with Jesus while in the flesh-Does God get tired? No. But Jesus did. Does God get hungry? No, but Jesus did. Does God sleep? No, but apparently Jesus did. Can God die? Certainly not, and yet, Jesus did. So, we must ask, can God be tempted with evil? No, and yet...you got it, the Bible says He was tempted in all points like as we-are we not tempted with evil? So Jesus, as a man, in flesh, as servant, must as well have been tempted by evil. Its just, for Him, it was not temptation, for also being God, He had the power not to sin, or rather, to be sinless.

 

This is the mystery of godliness, isn't it? That God was manifest in the flesh. If He could not feel and experience our pains and temptations, how then could He be  said to be touched by the feeling of our infirmities? This is the very thing that sends JW's into a tizzy-they cannot discern how God could be man, how Creator could be creature, how Almighty God could be frail man. How master could be servant. And how He that can't be tempted of evil, way nonetheless tempted in all points as we are. I don't understand it, I just believe it.

 

1Ki 22:22 And the LORD said unto him, Wherewith? And he said, I will go forth, and I will be a lying spirit in the mouth of all his prophets. And he said, Thou shalt persuade him, and prevail also: go forth, and do so.
1Ki 22:23 Now therefore, behold, the LORD hath put a lying spirit in the mouth of all these thy prophets, and the LORD hath spoken evil concerning thee.
2Ch 18:21 And he said, I will go out, and be a lying spirit in the mouth of all his prophets. And the LORD said, Thou shalt entice him, and thou shalt also prevail: go out, and do even so.
2Ch 18:22 Now therefore, behold, the LORD hath put a lying spirit in the mouth of these thy prophets, and the LORD hath spoken evil against thee.
 
I don't know if Solomon could explain how that worked for Jesus or how the verse in James works.
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1Ki 22:22 And the LORD said unto him, Wherewith? And he said, I will go forth, and I will be a lying spirit in the mouth of all his prophets. And he said, Thou shalt persuade him, and prevail also: go forth, and do so.
1Ki 22:23 Now therefore, behold, the LORD hath put a lying spirit in the mouth of all these thy prophets, and the LORD hath spoken evil concerning thee.
2Ch 18:21 And he said, I will go out, and be a lying spirit in the mouth of all his prophets. And the LORD said, Thou shalt entice him, and thou shalt also prevail: go out, and do even so.
2Ch 18:22 Now therefore, behold, the LORD hath put a lying spirit in the mouth of these thy prophets, and the LORD hath spoken evil against thee.
 
I don't know if Solomon could explain how that worked for Jesus or how the verse in James works.

 

Agreed.

 

The amazing, and difficult thing about scripture is that we are given truth, but never promised that we will understand it all. In fact, we are promised to NOT understand it all.

 

"For my thoughts are not your thoughts, neither are your ways my ways, saith the LORD. For as the heavens are higher than the earth, so are my ways higher than your ways, and my thoughts than your thoughts." (Isaiah 55:8&9) 

How can we hope to grasp the mind and thoughts and ways of an infinite, omnipotent, omniscient God, who is above all, sanctified eternally in the heavens?

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