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Original Sin/the Sin Nature


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SFIC, so a 'sin nature' does not mean having sinful desires, it means a propensity to yield to those sinful desires. Is that what you mean?

When I say sin nature, I mean nature that is inclined toward sin that causes us to gravitate toward sin.

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When I say sin nature, I mean nature that is inclined toward sin that causes us to gravitate toward sin.

 
Ok, and you believe that a person can be 'tempted' to sin without being inclined toward that sin? Is that right? I ask this because you appear to imply such in your question to SFIC:
 
"did you really just say we have to have a sin nature to be tempted to sin."

 

Is an 'inclination toward sin' a different thing to having desires towards sinful things and/or having temptations to sin?

 

You also asked whether SFIC thinks Jesus had a sin nature (defined by you as 'nature that is inclined toward sin') when he was tempted in the desert. Winman's response to this question earlier was to say that Jesus had 'desires that tempt(ed)' him to sin, but that such is not the same thing as having a sin nature. Would you agree with him on that?

 

"If having desires that tempt us is a sin nature, then Jesus had a sin nature. He was tempted in ALL POINTS (think about that one for a minute) as we are, yet without sin."

 

Again, just trying to get to the bottom of what folk actually mean when they use the term...

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John Smyth is a very poor example, as he migrated to Mennonite before he died. His path took him from Anglican to Se-Baptist, to Mennonite.  As an IFB, my doctrinal beliefs don't come from him, but rather from scripture. Rightly divided scripture, not scripture being put up to twist into something that becomes a pet argument.  Such as original sin.  

 

Winman, that's enough with your mockery.  If you can't discuss something without resorting to childish thrusts, then remain silent.  Scripture you have provided does not, in fact, prove your thesis that people are not born with sin.

 

You can proclaim all you want that Romans 5:12 teaches only death as a result of sin, but you are dead wrong. "Wherefore as by one man sin entered into the world [sin may have originated with the devil, but scripture very clearly says that it came into this world by one man...and context shows that one man to be Adam], and death by sin [OBviously this means that death now comes as a result of sin in the world]; and so death passed upon all men [simply meaning as a result of the sin in the world, death is something all people inherit], for that all have sinned."  Anyone who understands plain english can see that this prepositional phrase refers to the fact that death has come upon all for the reason that all have sinned.  That's the plain teaching of scripture.  

 

You, Winman, have posted a few things that in actuality cause doubt upon the deity of Christ.  You can claim that you haven't, but that is the effect of some of the things that you have said.  Now, here is your cease and desist order.  If you want to discuss and fellowship, great.  But stop introducing your blatantly perverted doctrines.  If you insist on continuing - even in arguing with this post - you will be banned.  But unlike BB, it won't be just for a month.  

 

 

~~

 

Jesus Christ was born sinless.  That is not going to be open to argument.  He is God. He was God before He became flesh.  Gen. 3:15 clearly tells us that He would be born of the seed of the woman.  Physically impossible since women do not have seed, but with God all things are possible. He did not inherit the sin nature with which we are all born (and for someone who supposedly has 8 kids to say that babies can't lie just because they can't speak is ludicrous...) because had He inherited it, He would not have been sinless and able to be the perfect sacrifice required for the sin of the world.

 

As a man, Jesus had the same issues we have: hunger, thirst, etc.  Without sin.  Hebrews 4:15 is clear on that:  "For we have an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities: but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin."  He did not sin. We sin often.  By commission and omission, because of our natural bent toward that.  Natural meaning a distinct part of our nature with which we are born.  

 

Being tempted is not sin in and of itself.  Remember that we are in a fleshly body that has fleshly desires (not all desires are wrong...but when they are put in the wrong priority they become wrong).  Because of those fleshly desires, we can be tempted, enticed.  It is when we give in to those temptations (even if the desires are of a good thing, if they are in the wrong time/wrong place category, they are wrong) that is sin.  And continuing in giving in to temptation causes the temptations to expand and become worse and worse...

 

Jesus Christ hungered after His 40 days in the desert.  In His fleshly body, He needed food, just as we do.  And so, because of His hunger, He could have been susceptible to the devil's tempting Him.  But He wasn't. Why?  Simply because He was God and could not sin, even in His human form.  

 

 

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