I'm starting this thread because I have a question to ask, and didn't want to hijack the IFB forums any further.   RMSTCB1611 said:     Okay, never mind Ruckman for a sec. I have a question. You said above that you believe that the KJV is 'superior to all other texts and therefore able to correct them all.'  How can the KJV be superior to all other texts? That would mean it was superior to - better than - the texts that it was translated from. That doesn't make any sense.   I'm not argu