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Kj Bible College


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Those that read & teach Greek today are so far removed from those who wrote the Bible, plus they are so far removed from those that translated the KJ Bible too. There is no way to know if modern day readers of Greek is getting the same meaning that the originals meant, nor those that translated the KJ Bible meant by going back to the original word. If the KJB is God’s Word, them you do not need that. Of course the most critical thing is to be saved, sadly many churches had rather check out the person education than their salvation.

I will stay with my KJ, trusting it much more than those that try to correct the KJ Bible. No put down, many that read Greek put their self down, by saying I read Greek, trust me, I can read the originals. Them during their sermon they spend 5 minutes, if not longer, defining words, many times changing what the KJ means, & sometimes.

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Here is an excerpt from Heartland Baptist Bible College's Doctrinal Statement:

I. THE SCRIPTURES

We believe the Holy Bible was written by men supernaturally inspired; that it has truth for its matter without any admixture of error; that it is and shall remain to the end of the age the only complete and final revelation of the will of God to man; and that it is the true center of Christian union and the supreme standard by which all human conduct, creeds, and opinions should be tried.

A. We believe the Authorized (King James) Version, Old and New Testaments, is the Word of God kept intact for English-speaking peoples by way of God's divine providence and work of preservation; and that the Authorized Version translators were not "inspired," but were merely God's instruments used to preserve His words for English-speaking peoples.

B. By Holy Bible we mean that collection of sixty-six books, from Genesis to Revelation, which, as originally written and providentially preserved, does not only contain and convey the Word of God, but is the very Word of God.

C. By inspiration we mean that the books of the Bible were written by holy men of God as they were moved by the Holy Ghost in such a definite way that their writings were supernaturally and verbally inspired and free from error, as no other writings have ever been or ever will be inspired.

D. By providentially preserved we mean that God through the ages has, in His divine providence, preserved the very words that He inspired; that the Hebrew Old Testament text, as found in the Traditional Masoretic Text, and the Greek New Testament text, as found in the Textus Receptus, are indeed the products of God's providential preservation and are altogether the complete, preserved, inerrant Word of God.

E. We therefore believe and require that the Authorized Version (King James Version) be the only English version used and or endorsed by the staff, faculty, and student body of this college.

Here is the link for the school's website: http://www.heartlandbaptist.edu/

Hope this answers your question.

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In the end it's faith. Do you trust that God preserved His Word? We can never know the original meaning nor why the translators chose that particular meaning - but we do know God promised to preserve His Word and even though He did do just that we still read it wrong sometimes and come up with our own translation to suit our own ends from His preserved Word. Must take dogs and wife to beach - will continue later.

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I agree - Webster's 1828 is a great dictionary. And thank you, Jerry, for saying "many that read Greek" rather than everyone. It is true that many who read Greek believe that they are above others who cannot. But it isn't true of everyone. The dean of our college is one of the most humble men I've ever met (I used to be his teacher, anon many years ago, so I've known him most of his life). I also worked for Joe Boyd (he was an evangelist who trained preacher boys for many years) for a few years. He actually read a Greek New Testament often. And I don't remember him ever correcting the KJB. Nor boasting about knowing Greek (I found out about the Greek NT from someone who saw him - he never mentioned it).

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He was oppressed, and he was afflicted, yet he opened not his mouth: he is brought as a lamb to the slaughter, and as a sheep before her shearers is dumb, so he openeth not his mouth. Isaiah 53:7

Many KJB words, don't mean the same thing they do in modern useage. Even context doesn't help for some. That's why some need a Lexicon or a dictionary.

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He was oppressed, and he was afflicted, yet he opened not his mouth: he is brought as a lamb to the slaughter, and as a sheep before her shearers is dumb, so he openeth not his mouth. Isaiah 53:7

Many KJB words, don't mean the same thing they do in modern useage. Even context doesn't help for some. That's why some need a Lexicon or a dictionary.

Ex 4:11; Ps 38:13; Prov 31:8; Isa 35:6; Ezek 3:26; 24:27; 33:22; Mt 9:32-33; 12:22; 15:31; Mk 7:37; Lk 11:14; are all sufficiently clear in defining the word -- justification for a concordance. Edited by Old fashioned
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My alma mater (PCC) uses the KJV exclusively. Though I do not recommend PCC for Preacher Boy's. I took 4 years of Greek while in college. I do use a lexicon, a greek-English Dictionary from the late 1800's.

I believe that the KJV is the preserved Word of God for English speaking people, but every time a translation is made, things are lost in the translation. I find that the Websters dictionary is almost as good as a lexicon, but grammar and words in Greek can help you understand why the translators did what they did.

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My alma mater (PCC) uses the KJV exclusively. Though I do not recommend PCC for Preacher Boy's. I took 4 years of Greek while in college. I do use a lexicon, a greek-English Dictionary from the late 1800's.

I believe that the KJV is the preserved Word of God for English speaking people, but every time a translation is made, things are lost in the translation. I find that the Websters dictionary is almost as good as a lexicon, but grammar and words in Greek can help you understand why the translators did what they did.


I would like to disagree with you on just one point. The Bible says in Psalms 12:7 -

Ps 12:7 Thou shalt keep them, O LORD, thou shalt preserve them from this generation for ever.

While word for word there are differences, if we take God at what He said, contextually and in meaning you could translate the Bible into any language and not lose any of the purity of Scriptures.
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I believe that the KJV is the preserved Word of God for English speaking people, but every time a translation is made, things are lost in the translation.


Where do you get this from? Do you have a scripture to back this statement? My bible says ALL SCRIPTURE is given by inspiration of God. The context of the passage is in reference to copies too.
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Where do you get this from? Do you have a scripture to back this statement? My bible says ALL SCRIPTURE is given by inspiration of God. The context of the passage is in reference to copies too.


So you would apply this statement to the MV's? The Message for example?
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So you would apply this statement to the MV's? The Message for example?


No. When all the translations contradict each other than they can't all be right. Not if there is such a thing as the plenary, verbal, infallible, inerrant words of God. If you believe that God only preserved his "Message" than, yes, all the translations could be right. Or they could be wrong. Or most likely a combination of both and you have to let the unsaved scholars out of Germany and England figure it out for you.

It's clear that Paul was referring to copies of the scriptures in II Timothy 3:15,16 unless Timothy had a copy of the "originals" laying around the house. Which I doubt. They wouldn't even have had the originals down at the local synagogue. So it had to be copies of the originals that Paul was referring to.

Now, some of the brethren think that the Greek and Hebrew languages themselves were magical and that the word of God could only reside in them and once translated into a different language they lost all that magic. Others, like Rick Norris, claim that the Greek word for"scriptures" in verse 15 is different than the Greek word for "scripture" in verse 16. The former referring to copies and the latter referring to the originals. These folks always have a way to get around the truth. Edited by Wilchbla
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OK, I've never been to a college but I have owned tape recordings of classes taking place in a bible institute (KJV Only). The teacher said they taught Hebrew and Greek for a couple reasons: 1) Like I mentioned before in another post, because most Christians won't give you the time of day if you don't know these things. If you don't sound educated or know the "original languages" they won't listen to you. 2) So you can debate the bible scholars on their own level. 3) To prove that at the end of the day that the bible correctors really don't care what the original languages say or what the manuscript evidence reveals. 4) To strengthen the believers faith in the preservation of the word of God.


4) To strengthen the believers faith in the preservation of the word of God.

On point number four...

I have faith that the K.J.V. is the preserved Word of God!
I have never needed any back-up of Greek, Hebrew, or any other to give me confidence or strength.
I was saved by grace through faith while hearing the word of God, the King James Version, being given to me by a soul winner that God had sent.
I witness from the K.J.V. and study from the same with all confidence of its power to change lives, and give strength!
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